investigating suspected fraud against public authorities,
Explanatory notes to the Bill, prepared by the Department for Work and Pensions, have been ordered to be published as HL Bill 96—EN.
Baroness Sherlock has made the following statement under section 19(1)(a) of the Human Rights Act 1998:
In my view the provisions of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Bill are compatible with the Convention rights.
A
bill
to
Make provision about the prevention of fraud against public authorities and the making of erroneous payments by public authorities; about the recovery of money paid by public authorities as a result of fraud or error; and for connected purposes.
B e it enacted by the King’s most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:—
The Minister for the Cabinet Office (“the Minister”) has the following functions
(“the core functions”)—
investigating suspected fraud against public authorities,
recovering amounts mentioned in subsection (2) ,
taking enforcement action in connection with fraud against public
authorities, and
providing support to public authorities in relation to preventing and
tackling fraud against them.
The amounts are—
payments made as a result of fraud or error that—
the Minister has identified or confirmed during the course of
an investigation in respect of suspected fraud against a public
authority, and
the public authority is entitled to recover,
any other amount that a public authority is entitled to recover in
respect of fraud, and
any interest that a public authority is entitled to recover in respect of
an amount within
paragraph (a)
or
(b)
.
In this Part, amounts within
subsection (2)
are referred to as “recoverable
amounts”.
The Minister is to—
investigate or take enforcement action in respect of suspected fraud
against another public authority, or
recover money on behalf of another public authority,
only at the request of that public authority.
The Minister may not act as mentioned in subsection (1) at the request of—
the Secretary of State with responsibility for social security, or
His Majesty’s Revenue and Customs.
The Minister may charge another public authority a fee in relation to the
exercise of functions under this Part on behalf of, or in relation to, the public
authority.
References in this Part to any public authority include the Minister in any
case relating to—
fraud or suspected fraud against the Minister, or
the recovery of money for the Minister.
Nothing in this Part affects—
whether a public authority is entitled to recover an amount, or
functions that a public authority has in respect of fraud and the
recovery of money,
otherwise than by virtue of this Part.
The Minister may require a person (“P”) to give specified information to the
Minister where the Minister considers that—
the information relates to a person (whether or not P) whom the
Minister has reasonable grounds to suspect has committed fraud
against a public authority.
The power conferred by
subsection (1)
is to be exercised by giving P a notice
(an “information notice”).
An information notice must identify (by name or description) the person
suspected of having committed fraud as mentioned in
subsection (1)
(b)
.
An information notice must set out—
how, where and the period within which the information must be
given to the Minister in order for the recipient of the notice to avoid
being liable to a penalty under
section 53
;
information about the consequences of not complying with the notice.
The period mentioned in
subsection (4)
(a)
must not be less than 10 working
days beginning with the day after the day on which the information notice
is given.
The power under this section to require P to give information to the Minister
includes the power to—
take copies of or extracts from information;
require P to provide information in a specified form;
require P to retain information that P would not otherwise retain;
if any specified information is not given to the Minister, require P to
state, to the best of P’s knowledge and belief, both where that
information is and why it has not been given to the Minister.
An information notice under this section may not require the giving of—
journalistic material, or
excluded material,
In this section, “specified” means—
specified, or described, in an information notice, or
falling within a category that is specified, or described, in an
information notice.
A person to whom an information notice is given under
section 3
may apply
to the Minister for a review of the decision to give the notice.
An application under
subsection (1)
must be made within the period of 7
days beginning with the day after the day on which the notice is given.
Where an application is made under
subsection (1)
, the Minister must review
the decision to give the notice.
On the review, the Minister may—
revoke the notice,
uphold the notice, or
vary the notice.
After a review has been carried out, the Minister must—
notify the person who applied for the review of the outcome of the
review, and
if the outcome was to vary the notice, give the person the varied notice.
A public authority may disclose information to the Minister for the purpose
of facilitating the Minister’s exercise of the core functions.
The Minister may use information disclosed under
subsection (1)
only for the
purpose of exercising the core functions.
The Minister may disclose information to another person for the purpose of
exercising the core functions.
Where the Minister discloses information to a person under subsection (3) , the person may not—
use it for any purpose other than the purpose for which it was
disclosed, and
may not disclose it to any other person,
without the consent of the Minister.
In the Investigatory Powers Act 2016, in Schedule 4 (relevant public authorities
and designated senior officers etc), in the table in Part 1, before the entry for
the Common Services Agency for the Scottish Health Service insert—
“Cabinet Office, so far as relating to
the Public Sector Fraud Authority
60A(7)(b)
”.
The provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 listed in
subsection (2)
apply in relation to investigations of offences of fraud against
a public authority that are conducted by authorised investigators in the
exercise of the Minister’s function under
section 1
(1)
(a)
as they apply in
relation to investigations of offences conducted by police officers, subject to
the modifications in
Schedule 1
.
The provisions are—
section 8(1) to (5) (power of justice of the peace to authorise entry and
search of premises);
section 9(1) and Schedule 1 (special provisions as to access);
section 15 (search warrants: safeguards);
section 16 (execution of warrants);
section 19 (general power of seizure etc);
section 20 (extension of powers of seizure to computerised information);
section 21 (access and copying);
section 22 (retention);
sections 10 to 14, 23 and 118 (interpretation provisions), so far as
necessary for the application of the provisions mentioned in
paragraphs
(a)
to
(h)
.
An authorised investigator is an individual who is authorised by the Minister
to exercise the powers conferred by this section.
An individual may not be an authorised investigator unless the individual—
is employed in the civil service of the state in the Minister’s
department, and
is a higher executive officer or has a grade that is equivalent to, or
higher than, that of a higher executive officer.
A magistrates’ court may, on an application by the Minister or a person with
an interest in relevant property—
order the delivery of the relevant property to the person appearing
to the court to be its owner, or
if its owner cannot be ascertained, make any other order about the
relevant property.
An order under
subsection (1)
(a)
may include provision for the Minister to
make any changes to the relevant property that the court considers necessary
for the purpose of avoiding or reducing any risk of the relevant property
being used in the commission of an offence.
An order under
subsection (1)
(b)
may not provide for the destruction or
disposal of the relevant property before the end of the period of 6 months
beginning with the day on which the order is made.
An order under
subsection (1)
(b)
(“the first order”) does not prevent further
applications being made for an order under
subsection (1)
in respect of the
relevant property to which the first order applies.
Where an order is made following a further application—
the order may not provide for the destruction or disposal of the
relevant property before the end of the period of 6 months beginning
with the day on which the first order was made, but
the order may otherwise contain such provision as to the timing of
the destruction or disposal of the relevant property as the court thinks
fit.
In this section, “relevant property” means tangible property which has come
into the possession of the Minister in the course of, or in connection with,
the exercise of a function under this Part.
The Police Reform Act 2002 (complaints and misconduct) is amended as
follows.
In section 10 (general functions of the Director General)—
(gc)
to carry out such corresponding functions in relation
to public sector fraud investigators acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by section 7 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025 (Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 powers for public sector fraud investigators).”,
“(bf)
any regulations under section 26G of this Act (public
sector fraud investigators);”, and
“(7A)
In this section, “public sector fraud investigators” means
authorised investigators within the meaning given by section
7 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025.”
“26G Public sector fraud investigators
(1)
The Minister for the Cabinet Office (“the Minister”) may make
regulations conferring functions on the Director General in relation to public sector fraud investigators acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by section 7 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025 (Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 powers for public sector fraud investigators).(2)
Regulations under this section may, in particular—
(a)
apply (with or without modifications), or make provision
similar to, any provision of or made under this Part;(b)
make provision for payment by the Minister to, or in respect
of, the Office or in respect of the Director General.(3)
The Director General and the Parliamentary Commissioner for
Administration may jointly investigate a matter in relation to which—(a)
the Director General has functions by virtue of this section,
and(b)
the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration has
functions by virtue of the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967.(4)
The Minister may disclose information to the Director General or to
a person acting on the Director General’s behalf, for the purposes of the exercise by the Director General or by any person acting on the Director General’s behalf, of a public sector fraud complaints function.(5)
The Director General and the Parliamentary Commissioner for
Administration may disclose information to each other for the purposes of the exercise of a function—(a)
by virtue of this section, or
(b)
under the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967.
(6)
Regulations under this section may, in particular, make—
(a)
further provision about the disclosure of information under
subsection (4) or (5);(b)
provision about the further disclosure of information that has
been so disclosed.(7)
A disclosure of information authorised by or under this section does
not breach—(a)
any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the
disclosure, or(b)
any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however
imposed).(8)
No provision made by or under this section authorises a disclosure
of information that—(a)
would contravene the data protection legislation (but in
determining whether a disclosure would do so, the power conferred by this section is to be taken into account), or(b)
is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of
the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.(9)
In this section—
“
data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data
Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act);“
public sector fraud complaints function” means a function in
relation to the exercise of functions conferred by section 7 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025;“
public sector fraud investigator” means an authorised investigator
within the meaning given by section 7 that Act.”
In section 105 (powers of Secretary of State to make orders and regulations), In this section, references to the Secretary of State include references
after subsection (5) insert—
“(6)
to the Minister for the Cabinet Office for the purposes of section 26G
(power to make regulations about public sector fraud investigators).”
The Minister may act under this Part on behalf of another public authority
in relation to the recovery of a recoverable amount, including by—
bringing or continuing proceedings in a court or tribunal for an amount
(a “claimed amount”) which the Minister reasonably believes to be a
recoverable amount, and
exercising the powers in Chapter 4 to recover a recoverable amount.
Where the Minister recovers an amount under this Part on behalf of another
public authority, the Minister must transfer that amount to the public authority
unless the public authority agrees that the Minister may retain some or all
of the amount.
Before bringing proceedings in a court or tribunal for a claimed amount on
behalf of another public authority, the Minister must give the person from
whom the Minister reasonably believes the amount is recoverable (the “liable
person”) a notice (a “recovery notice”).
A recovery notice must—
state that the Minister intends to bring proceedings for the claimed
amount,
state the amount of the claimed amount,
provide the Minister’s reasons for believing that amount to be a
recoverable amount,
invite the liable person to discharge the person’s liability in respect
of the claimed amount by agreement with the Minister, and set out
how this can be done,
set out the further action that may be taken by the Minister under this
Part in respect of the claimed amount, including if the liable person’s
liability for the amount is not settled by agreement, and
state a period during which the Minister will not bring proceedings
for the claimed amount in order to give the liable person an
opportunity to discharge their liability in respect of the claimed amount
by agreement.
The period mentioned in
subsection (2)
(f)
must not be less than 28 days
beginning with the day after the day on which the recovery notice is given.
The giving of a recovery notice has effect as the bringing of an action for the
recovery of a claimed amount for the purposes of any time limit that would
apply in relation to that amount.
The Minister may use the methods of recovery in Chapter 4 to recover a claimed amount from a liable person only so far as—
the liable person agrees, or
there has been a final determination by a court or tribunal,
that the amount is a recoverable amount.
The Minister may exercise the powers in
Chapter 4
to recover amounts due
in respect of—
a penalty under Chapter 5 , and
relevant costs.
For the purposes of this Part, references to—
an “amount due in respect of a penalty under
Chapter 5
” include late
payment interest due in respect of a penalty (see
section 61
), and
“relevant costs” are to—
costs that are awarded by a court or tribunal on or in relation
to a claim for a recoverable amount, and
costs that are reasonably incurred by the Minister in exercising
the powers in
Chapter 4
.
The Minister may exercise the powers in Chapter 4 to recover an amount due in respect of a penalty only when—
the time for appealing against the penalty has passed without an
appeal being brought (see
section 60
(2)
), or
In this Part, references to a “payable amount” are to—
an amount within section 13 (1) .
The Minister may apply to the county court for a recovery order in respect
of a payable amount.
A recovery order is an order providing that the payable amount is
recoverable—
under section 85 of the County Courts Act 1984, or
otherwise as if it were payable under an order of the court.
Where a payable amount is recoverable from a liable person who holds an
account with a bank, the Minister may make an order (a “direct deduction
order”) in respect of that account.
A direct deduction order must be given to the bank with which the account
is held.
A direct deduction order may be—
a regular direct deduction order, or
a lump sum direct deduction order.
A regular direct deduction order is an order requiring the bank—
to make regular deductions from the liable person’s account, and
to pay the amounts deducted to the Minister.
A lump sum direct deduction order is an order requiring the bank—
to deduct from the liable person’s account an amount specified in the
order, and
to pay that amount to the Minister.
The Minister may give a regular direct deduction order and a lump sum
direct deduction order in respect of the same account.
The Minister must give a copy of a direct deduction order to—
the liable person, and
in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders.
The Minister may make a direct deduction order in respect of any account
which—
is held by a liable person, and
contains an amount in which the Minister considers the liable person
has a beneficial interest.
The Minister may make a direct deduction order in respect of a joint account
only if the liable person does not hold a sole account in respect of which a
deduction order may be made which would be likely to result in the recovery
of the payable amount within a reasonable period of time.
But sub-paragraph
(2)
does not apply if all the joint account holders are liable
persons in relation to the same payable amount.
Before the Minister makes a direct deduction order in respect of a liable
person’s account, the Minister must obtain and consider bank statements for
the account covering a period of at least three months.
To obtain the statements, the Minister must give the bank with which the
Minister believes the liable person holds the account a notice (an “account
information notice”) requiring the bank to give the Minister statements for
the account covering—
the three months immediately before the notice is given, or
such longer period, ending immediately before the notice is given, as
may be specified in the notice.
An account information notice must—
contain the name of the liable person, and
identify the account (for example, by number and sort code).
The Minister may give an account information notice relating to an account
only for the purpose of determining whether to make a direct deduction order
in respect of the account.
At any time, for the purposes of determining whether to make a direct
deduction order in relation to a liable person, the Minister may give a notice
(a “general information notice”) to a bank requiring the bank to—
identify every account that the liable person holds with the bank,
for each identified account, give the Minister the following
information—
a description of the type of account,
identifiers for the account,
if the account is a sole account, the balance of the account at
the time that it is identified, and
if the account is a joint account, the name of each other account
holder, and
give the Minister—
the correspondence address that the bank holds for the liable
person, and
in the case of a joint account, the correspondence address that
the bank holds for each other account holder.
The Minister may give—
more than one account information notice, or general information
notice, in relation to the same payable amount;
more than one account information notice in respect of the same
account.
A notice under this section must—
set out how and when the bank is to comply with the notice, and
explain that the bank may be liable to a penalty under
section 53
if it
fails to do so without reasonable excuse.
The bank must comply with a notice given under this section.
A bank that is given an account information notice, or a general information
notice, must not notify any of the following people that the notice has been
given—
the liable person,
any other holder of the account in respect of which an account
information notice is given;
any other holder of an account identified in accordance with a general
information notice.
Information given to the Minister in response to a notice under this section
may be used by the Minister for the purpose of exercising the core functions
but not for any other purpose.
Before making a direct deduction order in respect of a joint account, the
Minister must make an assessment of the liable person’s beneficial interest
in the amounts which are or may be in the account from time to time.
The Minister must presume that the liable person’s beneficial interest entitles
them to the following share in the amounts which are or may be in the account
from time to time—
where “N” is the number of account holders.
But the presumption does not apply where the Minister has reason to believe
that the liable person’s beneficial interest is different from the presumed share.
In making an assessment under subsection
(1)
, the Minister must have regard
to—
the bank statements obtained for the account under section 19 , and
any responses to a notice under section 21 .
Before making a direct deduction order, the Minister must give the bank
where the account in question is held, the liable person, and, in the case of
a joint account, each of the other account holders, a notice—
identifying the account that would be subject to the proposed order,
stating the amount that would be recoverable under the proposed
order,
setting out the terms of the proposed order, and
if the account is a joint account, setting out the Minister’s duty to
make an assessment as to the liable person’s beneficial interest and
the presumption that applies (see section
20
).
The notice must invite the liable person and, in the case of a joint account,
each other account holder—
to make representations about the terms of the proposed order, and
in the case of a joint account, to make representations about the liable
person’s beneficial interest in amounts in the account.
The notice must set out the means by which, and the period within which,
representations may be made.
The period must be at least 28 days beginning with the day after the day on
which the notice is given.
The Minister must—
consider representations made in accordance with the notice, and
in light of any representations—
in the case of a joint account, make the assessment required
under
section 20
(1)
, and
in any case, decide whether, and in what terms, to make a
direct deduction order in respect of the account.
A notice under
subsection (1)
may be given to the bank before it is given to
the other persons to whom it is required to be given under that subsection
(and for the effect of giving the notice to the bank see
section 26
(restrictions
on accounts)).
Where a notice is given to the bank in reliance on
subsection (6)
, the notice
must be given to the other persons as soon as reasonably practicable after
being given to the bank.
If, following the giving of a notice under this section, the Minister decides
not to make a direct deduction order, the Minister must, as soon as reasonably
practicable, notify the bank, the liable person and, in the case of a joint
account, each of the other account holders, of the decision.
The Minister may make a direct deduction order only if satisfied on the basis
of information received by virtue of
sections 19
and
21
that the terms of the
order—
will not cause the liable person, any other account holder or a person
within
subsection (2)
to suffer hardship in meeting essential living
expenses, and
are otherwise fair in all the circumstances.
A person is within this subsection if—
they live with the liable person, or any other account holder, for some
or all of the time, or
they are financially dependent on the liable person or any other account
holder.
The total amount of deductions to be made under a regular direct deduction
order in relation to any period of 28 days must not exceed—
in a case to which
subsection (4)
applies, 40% of the relevant amount,
and
in any other case, 20% of the relevant amount.
This subsection applies in a case where the Minister is satisfied, on the balance
of probabilities, that the payable amount to which the regular direct deduction
order relates is recoverable from the liable person because the liable person
committed fraud.
For the purposes of
subsection (3)
, the “relevant amount” is the amount that
the Minister reasonably expects to be credited to the account in question in
(or in respect of) a typical month during the period for which the order will
have effect, having regard to all statements given to the Minister in relation
to the account (see
sections 19
(2)
and
31
(1)
).
The Minister must ensure that the total amount to be deducted and paid to
the Minister under a direct deduction order does not exceed the payable
amount to which the order relates.
A regular direct deduction order must specify—
the amounts, or a method for calculating the amounts, to be deducted
(see
section 22
),
when amounts are to be deducted and paid to the Minister, and
the penalties that may be imposed for a failure to comply (see
section
53
).
A regular direct deduction order may specify different amounts, or different
methods for calculating the amounts, to be deducted at different times.
A lump sum direct deduction order must specify—
the amount, or method for calculating the amount, to be deducted,
when the amount is to be deducted and paid to the Minister, and
the penalties that may be imposed for a failure to comply (see
section
53
).
A direct deduction order may not require an amount to be deducted from a
person’s bank account before the end of the period of 28 days beginning with
the day after the day on which the Minister complies with
section 17
(7)
.
A bank must comply with a direct deduction order.
If (apart from this subsection) a bank would be required to make a deduction
and payment under a direct deduction order on a day that is not a working
day, the obligation to make the deduction and payment applies in relation
to the next working day after that day.
A direct deduction order may include provision for the bank to deduct from
the liable person’s account an amount specified in, or calculated in accordance
with, the order, for the purposes of meeting costs reasonably incurred by the
bank in complying with the order.
A bank may deduct the costs to which they are entitled under a direct
deduction order immediately prior to making the deduction which is to be
paid to the Minister under the order.
Where the amount in an account is lower than the amount to be deducted
in accordance with a lump sum direct deduction order at the time that the
bank is (apart from this subsection) required to make the deduction—
no deduction is to be made, and
the bank must notify the Minister as soon as possible.
Where the amount in an account is lower than the amount to be deducted
in accordance with a regular direct deduction order at the time that the bank
is (apart from this subsection) required to make the deduction—
the order is to be read as requiring the deduction and payment to the
Minister to take place on the same day the following week, and
if, on that day, the amount in the account is lower than the amount
to be deducted in accordance with the order—
no deduction is to be made, and
the bank must notify the Minister as soon as possible.
References in this section to the amount to be deducted in accordance with
a direct deduction order include any amounts to be deducted in respect of a
bank’s costs by virtue of provision under
section 24
(1)
.
Where a notice under section
21
(1)
(a “first notice”), or a direct deduction
order under
section 17
, is given to a bank in relation to a liable person’s
account, the bank must—
ensure that the account is not closed at the request of an account
holder, and
if the notice relates to a proposed lump sum direct deduction order,
or the order is a lump sum direct deduction order—
secure that no transaction takes place (except for any deduction
under the order) which would result in the amount in the
account falling below the specified amount or, if the amount
in the account is already below that amount, falling any further,
or
take the action set out in subsection (2) .
The action is to—
transfer the specified amount, or the amount in the account if that is
less than the specified amount, from the account into a different
account (a “hold account”) created by the bank for the sole purpose
of holding that transferred amount, and
secure that no transaction takes place (except for any deduction under
the order) which would result in the amount in the hold account
falling below the amount transferred.
Where a bank takes the action set out in
subsection (2)
in relation to a lump
sum direct deduction order, the order is to be read as if it required all
deductions to be made from the hold account.
A bank must ensure that taking the action set out in
subsection (2)
does not
cause any disadvantage to the liable person, and in the case of a joint account,
any other account holder, that the liable person, and any other account holder,
would not have experienced if the bank had instead acted in accordance with
subsection
(1)
(b)
(i)
.
The requirements in subsection (1) cease to apply when—
in relation to a first notice, a notice is given to the bank under section
21
(8)
) (notice of decision not to make a direct deduction order), or a
direct deduction order is given to the bank under
section 17
;
in relation to a direct deduction order—
all the deductions under the order have been made, or
the order is revoked.
Where a notice under section
21
(1)
(a “first notice”), or a copy of a direct
deduction order under
section 17
, is given to a person in relation to an account
that they hold, they must not do anything to frustrate the effect of the first
notice or the direct deduction order.
The requirement in subsection (1) ceases to apply when—
in relation to a first notice, a notice under section
21
(8)
) (notice of
decision not to make a direct deduction order), or a copy of a direct
deduction order under
section 17
, is given to the person;
in relation to a direct deduction order—
all the deductions under the order have been made, or
the order is revoked.
In
subsection (1)
, the reference to frustrating the effect of a first notice is a
reference to frustrating the effect of the proposed direct deduction order the
terms of which are set out in the notice.
Any holder of an account to which a direct deduction order applies may
apply to the Minister to vary the order.
The Minister must give any other holders of the account an opportunity to
make representations in relation to the application.
The Minister must notify the applicant and any other account holders of the
Minister’s decision on the application.
The Minister may vary a direct deduction order (whether on an application
by an account holder or otherwise).
The provisions in this section apply in relation to any variation of a direct
deduction order, including one that results from a review under
section 34
.
Where the Minister proposes to vary a direct deduction order, the Minister
must give—
the liable person, and
in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders,
an opportunity to make representations about the proposed variation.
The Minister may comply with
subsection (3)
at the same time as complying
with
section 28
(2)
.
A variation to a direct deduction order takes effect when the Minister gives
the varied order to the bank or, if later, in accordance with the terms of the
order as varied.
The Minister must give a copy of the varied order to the liable person and,
in the case of a joint account, each other account holder.
The Minister may vary a direct deduction order so that the order applies to
another account held by the liable person (including an account provided by
a different bank) only if—
the variation is requested by the liable person, and
if the other account is a joint account, each of the other account holders
consents.
Where a direct deduction order is varied under subsection (7) —
if the order is varied so that it applies to an account provided by
another bank—
the reference in
subsection (5)
to “the bank” is to the bank
which provides that account,
section 23
(5)
applies to the order as varied as it applied to the
original order, and
the Minister must notify the bank given the original order of
the effect of the variation, and
if the order is varied so that it applies to a joint account—
the requirement in
subsection (6)
is to give a copy of the order
to each other holder of that joint account, and
if the original order applied to a joint account, the Minister
must notify each other holder of that joint account of the effect
of the variation.
The steps set out in
sections 19
to
21
do not apply to a decision to vary a
direct deduction order.
The Minister may revoke a direct deduction order.
The Minister must revoke a direct deduction order as soon as reasonably
practicable after becoming aware that—
the payable amount has been recovered (whether by the Minister or
the public authority on behalf of which the Minister is acting), or
the liable person to whom the order relates has died.
Where the Minister revokes a direct deduction order, the Minister must give
a notice of the revocation to—
the bank to which the order was given,
the liable person (apart from in a case within subsection (2) (b) ), and
in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders.
For the purposes of determining whether to revoke or vary a direct deduction
order, the Minister may give a bank a notice (a “further information notice”)
requiring the bank—
to give the Minister statements for an account held by the liable person
covering—
the three months immediately before the notice was given, or
such longer period, ending immediately before the notice was
given, as may be specified in the notice;
Subsections
(6)
to
(8)
and
(10)
of
section 19
apply in relation to a further
information notice as they apply in relation to a notice under that section.
Before giving a further information notice to a bank requiring statements to
be given in respect of a joint account, the Minister must notify each account
holder other than the liable person—
that the notice will be given, and
of the effect of the notice.
A further information notice may be given to the bank before, at the same
time as or after the Minister complies with
section 29
(3)
.
The Minister may suspend and re-start the requirement to make deductions
and payments under a regular direct deduction order at any time by notifying
the bank to which the order was given.
The Minister must notify the liable person and, in the case of a joint account,
each other account holder if the requirement is suspended or re-started under
this section.
A bank ceases to be subject to a direct deduction order on becoming aware of the liable person’s death.
This section applies where the Minister—
makes a direct deduction order,
varies a direct deduction order, or
decides not to vary a direct deduction order in response to an
application under
section 28
.
Any of the following persons (“relevant persons”) may apply to the Minister
for a review of the decision to make, to vary or not to vary the order—
the liable person to whom the order relates, and
in the case of a joint account, any other account holder.
An application under
subsection (2)
must be made before the end of the
period of 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which the applicant
was—
given a copy of the order or the order as varied, or
notified of the decision not to vary the order.
An application for a review under this section may not be made on, or include,
any ground relating to the existence or amount of a payable amount (unless
the amount is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
Where an application for a review is made under this section, the Minister
must review the decision in question.
On the review, the Minister may—
uphold the decision,
vary the order, or
revoke the order.
After a review has been carried out, the Minister must notify the applicant
and other relevant persons of the outcome of the review.
See section 29 for provisions about varying a direct deduction order.
A relevant person may appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against—
the making of a direct deduction order,
the variation of a direct deduction order, or
a refusal to vary a direct deduction order after an application under section 28 .
A relevant person may not appeal under
subsection (1)
in relation to a direct
deduction order unless they have—
applied for a review of the decision to make, to vary or not to vary
the order under
section 34
, and
been notified of the outcome of the review.
Subsection (2)
does not apply where a direct deduction order is varied on a
review under
section 34
.
A relevant person must bring an appeal under subsection
(1)
within the period
of 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which the person was
notified of the outcome of the review.
An appeal under subsection
(1)
may not be brought on, or include, any ground
relating to the existence or amount of a payable amount (unless the amount
is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
On an appeal under this section, the First-tier Tribunal may suspend the
requirement on a bank to comply with a direct deduction order for some or
all of the time until the appeal is finally determined.
On an appeal under subsection (1) , the First-tier Tribunal may—
amend the direct deduction order;
revoke the direct deduction order;
dismiss the appeal.
In this section, “relevant person” has the meaning that it has in section 34 .
For the purposes of direct deduction orders, “bank” means a person who is
authorised—
to accept deposits, or
to issue electronic money.
For the purposes of subsection (1) (a) —
the reference to accepting deposits is to carrying on the regulated
activity of accepting deposits for the purposes of the Financial Services
and Markets Act 2000 (see section 22 of that Act and article 5 of the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order
2001 (S.I. 2001/544)), and
a person is authorised to accept deposits if they are an authorised
person or an exempt person in relation to the carrying on of that
activity for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act
2000.
For the purposes of
subsection (1)
(b)
, a person is authorised to issue electronic
money if—
the person is an electronic money institution, and
the person is authorised or registered under Part 2 of the Electronic
Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) in relation to carrying on the
activity of issuing electronic money.
In
subsection (3)
, “electronic money” and “electronic money institution” have
the meanings given by regulation 2(1) of those Regulations (and references
to the issue of electronic money are to be construed in accordance with those
Regulations).
In this Part, references to an amount in an account are to an amount standing
to the credit of the account.
In this Part, references to a person holding an account include references to—
a person holding an account jointly with one or more other persons,
a person being a signatory, or one of the signatories, to an account,
and
an account being, in any other way, in the person’s name,
and “holder” is to be read accordingly.
The Minister may by regulations make further provision about direct deduction
orders.
Regulations under this section may, among other things, make provision
about—
how notices and orders are to be given by the Minister;
how notices and information are to be given to the Minister;
the calculation of amounts to be deducted, including—
about establishing whether deductions would cause a person
to suffer hardship in meeting essential living expenses, and
about amounts which are, or are not, to be taken into account
in calculating the amounts credited to an account for the
purposes of
section 22
(3)
;
the duties of banks in relation to direct deduction orders, including
before a direct deduction order is made;
costs which a bank may recover by virtue of
section 24
or from the
Minister;
the interaction between direct deduction orders under this Chapter
and similar orders under any other enactment.
Regulations under this section may, among other things, apply
sections 17
to
36
, as they apply to banks, to other types of person who provide financial
products or services (including products or services that operate by reference
to cryptoassets or any similar product or service).
In
subsection (3)
, “cryptoasset” has the meaning given in section 84A of the
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
Before making relevant regulations in reliance on subsection (2) (a) , (b) , (d) or (e) the Minister must consult—
persons who appear to the Minister to represent the interests of banks,
and
such other persons (if any) as the Minister considers appropriate.
Before making relevant regulations in reliance on
subsection (3)
, the Minister
must consult—
persons who appear to the Minister to represent the interests of persons
to whom provisions about direct deduction orders would be applied
by the regulations, and
such other persons (if any) as the Minister considers appropriate.
In this section, “relevant regulations” means—
the first regulations made in reliance on the provisions in question,
and
any subsequent regulations made in reliance on those provisions
which—
impose new duties on banks, or
make changes to existing duties or provisions which, in the
opinion of the Minister, are more than minor.
Regulations made in reliance on
subsection (3)
are subject to the affirmative
procedure.
Any other regulations under this section are subject to the negative procedure.
Where an amount is recoverable from a liable person who is employed, the
Minister may make a deduction from earnings order.
A deduction from earnings order is an order requiring the liable person’s
employer—
to make deductions from the liable person’s earnings from that
employer, and
pay the amounts deducted to the Minister.
The Minister may by regulations make provision about the meaning of
“earnings” for the purposes of deduction from earnings orders.
Regulations under this section are subject to the negative procedure.
A deduction from earnings order must set out—
the amounts to be deducted or a method for calculating those amounts,
the periods in relation to which those amounts are to be deducted
(the “affected periods”),
when amounts are to be deducted and paid to the Minister, and
the penalties that may be imposed for a failure to comply (see
section
53
).
The Minister must give—
the deduction from earnings order to the liable person’s employer,
and
a copy of the order to the liable person.
A deduction from earnings order may not require an amount to be deducted
from the liable person’s earnings before the end of the period of 22 days
beginning with the day on which the order is given to the employer.
An employer must comply with a deduction from earnings order.
Before making a deductions from earnings order in respect of a liable person,
the Minister must give the liable person a notice inviting them to make
representations about the proposed order.
The notice must include—
the terms of the proposed order,
a statement of the amount that is recoverable, and
the means by which, and the period within which, representations
may be made.
The period must be at least 28 days beginning with the day after the day on
which the notice is given.
The Minister must—
consider any representations received in accordance with the notice,
and
in light of those representations—
decide whether to make a deductions from earnings order in
respect of the liable person, and
make any changes to the terms of the proposed order that the
Minister considers appropriate.
The Minister must give a copy of a notice under
subsection (1)
to the liable
person’s employer.
If, following the giving of a notice under
subsection (1)
, the Minister decides
not to make the proposed deduction from earnings order, the Minister must,
as soon as reasonably practicable—
give the liable person a notice to that effect, and
give a copy of the notice to the liable person’s employer.
The Minister may make a deduction from earnings order only if satisfied that
the terms of the order—
will not cause the liable person or a person within
subsection (2)
to
suffer hardship in meeting ordinary living expenses, and
are otherwise fair in all the circumstances.
A person is within this subsection if—
they live with the liable person for some or all of the time, or
they are financially dependent on the liable person.
The amount to be deducted in relation to an affected period must not exceed—
in a case to which
subsection (4)
applies, 40% of the liable person’s
net earnings for the affected period, and
in any other case, 20% of the liable person’s net earnings for the
affected period.
This subsection applies in a case where the Minister is satisfied, on the balance
of probabilities, that the payable amount to which the deduction from earnings
order relates is recoverable from the liable person because the liable person
committed fraud.
The Minister must ensure that the total amount to be deducted and paid to
the Minister under a deduction from earnings order does not exceed the
payable amount to which the order relates.
The Minister may by regulations make further provision about the calculation
of amounts to be deducted from a liable person’s earnings and paid to the
Minister in accordance with a deduction from earnings order.
The regulations may, among other things, make provision about establishing
whether deductions would cause a person to suffer hardship in meeting
ordinary living expenses.
Regulations under this section are subject to the negative procedure.
In this section, “net earnings” means the person’s earnings after the following
have been deducted—
income tax,
primary Class 1 national insurance contributions, and
any contribution that the person pays to a pension scheme.
A deduction from earnings order may include provision for the employer to
which it is given to deduct from the liable person’s earnings an amount
specified in, or calculated in accordance with, the order, for the purpose of
meeting costs reasonably incurred by the employer in complying with the
order.
The Minister may by regulations make provision about costs to which subsection (1) relates.
Regulations under this section are subject to the negative procedure.
The Minister may suspend and re-start the requirement to make deductions
and payments under a deduction from earnings order at any time by notifying
the employer to which the order was given.
The Minister must notify the liable person if the requirement is suspended
or re-started under this section.
A liable person in respect of whom a deduction from earnings order is in
force, must notify the Minister on each occasion that they—
leave any employment, or
start a new employment,
within the period of 7 days beginning with the day after the day on which they leave or start the employment.
If the liable person notifies the Minister that they have started a new
employment, they must include a statement of their expected earnings from
their new employment.
A person who—
becomes the employer of a liable person, and
knows that a deduction from earnings order is in force in respect of
the liable person,
must, within 10 days of the beginning of the liable person’s employment, notify the Minister that they have become the liable person’s employer and include a statement of the liable person’s expected earnings from the employment.
A person must notify the Minister if a liable person in respect of whom a
deduction from earnings order is in force ceases to be in their employment.
The notification must be given within the period of 10 days beginning with
the day after the day on which the liable person leaves the employment.
A liable person may apply to the Minister to vary a deduction from earnings
order.
The Minister must notify the liable person of the Minister’s decision on the
application.
The Minister may vary a deduction from earnings order given to an employer
(whether on an application by the liable person or otherwise) by—
giving a revised version of the order to the employer, and
giving a copy of the revised version to the liable person.
Where the Minister proposes to vary a deduction from earnings order, the
Minister must give the liable person an opportunity to make representations
about the proposed variation.
The Minister may revoke a deduction from earnings order.
The Minister must revoke a deduction from earnings order if the payable
amount to which it relates has been recovered.
Where the Minister revokes a deduction from earnings order, the Minister
must give notice of the revocation to—
the employer, and
the liable person.
This section applies where the Minister—
makes a deduction from earnings order,
varies a deduction from earnings order, or
decides not to vary a deduction from earnings order in response to
an application under
section 45
.
A liable person may apply to the Minister for a review of the decision to
make, to vary or not to vary the order.
An application under subsection
(2)
must be made within the period of 28
days beginning with the day after the day on which the liable person was—
given a copy of the order or the order as varied, or
notified of the decision not to vary the order.
An application for a review under subsection
(1)
may not be brought on, or
include, any ground relating to the existence or amount of a payable amount
(unless the amount is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
Where an application is made under this section, the Minister must review
the decision in question.
On a review, the Minister may—
uphold the decision,
vary the order, or
revoke the order.
After a review has been carried out, the Minister must—
notify the liable person of the outcome of the review, and
if the outcome was to vary the order, give—
the varied order to the liable person’s employer, and
a copy of the varied order to the liable person.
A liable person may appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against—
the making of a deduction from earnings order,
the variation of a deduction from earnings order, or
a refusal to vary a deduction from earnings order after an application
under
section 45
.
The liable person may not appeal under subsection (1) unless they have—
applied for a review of the decision to make, to vary or not to vary
the order under
section 48
, and
been notified of the outcome of the review.
Subsection (2)
does not apply where a deduction from earnings order is varied
on a review under
section 48
.
An appeal must be brought within the period of 28 days beginning with the
day after the day on which the liable person was notified of the outcome of
the review.
An appeal under subsection
(1)
may not be brought on, or include, any ground
relating to the existence or amount of a payable amount (unless the amount
is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
On an appeal under this section, the First-tier Tribunal may suspend the
requirement on an employer to comply with a deduction from earnings order
for some or all of the time until the appeal is finally determined.
On an appeal under subsection (1) , the First-tier Tribunal may—
amend the deduction from earnings order,
revoke the deduction from earnings order, or
dismiss the appeal.
The Minister may impose a penalty on a person if satisfied, on the balance of probabilities, that the person has carried out, or conspired to carry out, fraud—
in order to receive or help another person to receive a payment that
is or, if the payment was not made, would have been, a recoverable
amount, or
with the result that a public authority is entitled to claim any other
recoverable amount.
Subsection (2)
applies where a body is liable to receive a penalty under
section
50
by reason of anything which the Minister is satisfied, on the balance of
probabilities, was done or not done with the consent or connivance of—
a relevant individual in relation to the body, or
an individual purporting to act in the capacity of a relevant individual
in relation to the body.
The Minister may impose a penalty under
section 50
on the individual as
well as on the body.
In this section, “relevant individual” means—
in relation to a body corporate other than one whose affairs are
managed by its members, a director, manager, secretary or other similar
officer of the body;
in relation to a limited liability partnership or other body corporate
whose affairs are managed by its members, a member who exercises
functions of management with respect to it;
in relation to a limited partnership, a general partner (within the
meaning given by section 3 of the Limited Partnerships Act 1907);
in relation to any other partnership, a partner;
in relation to an unincorporated association, a person who exercises
functions of management with respect to it.
A penalty imposed on a person under
section 50
(a)
may not exceed 100% of
the payment to which it relates.
Where a penalty is imposed under
section 50
(a)
in relation to conduct which
does not result in a person receiving a payment,
subsection (1)
is to be read
as if the reference to “the payment” were to the payment which, in the opinion
of the Minister, a person would have received if a payment had been made
in consequence of the conduct.
A penalty imposed on a person under
section 50
(b)
may not exceed 100%
of—
any loss caused to the public authority, or
if higher, the benefit gained by the person,
as a result of the fraud in question.
The Minister may impose a penalty on a person where the Minister considers that the person has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with—
a requirement imposed by or under
Chapter 2
(investigatory powers),
or
a requirement imposed by or under Chapter 4 (methods of recovery).
Subsection (2) applies where the Minister considers that—
a body has, without reasonable excuse, failed to comply with a
requirement mentioned in
section 53
, and
a relevant individual in relation to the body has, without reasonable
excuse, failed to prevent that failure.
The Minister may impose a penalty under
section 53
on the individual as
well as on the body.
In this section, “relevant individual” in relation to a body has the same
meaning that it has in
section 51
.
In this section, references to a “daily rate” in relation to a person’s failure to
provide information are to an amount that may be imposed for each day by
the end of which the information has not been provided, beginning with the
last day on which compliance would have resulted in a penalty not being
payable.
The Minister may by regulations amend the amounts mentioned in
subsections
(1)
and
(2)
for the time being to reflect a change in the value of money.
Regulations under subsection (4) are subject to the negative procedure.
This section and
sections 57
and
58
set out steps that must be taken before
the Minister may impose a penalty on a person under
section 50
or
53
.
Where the Minister proposes that a person should be given a penalty under
section 50
or
53
, the Minister must give the person a notice (a “notice of
intent”) inviting them to make representations about the proposed penalty.
The notice of intent must include—
the amount of the proposed penalty,
the reasons for the penalty being of that amount, and
the means by which, and the period within which, representations
may be made.
The period must be at least 28 days beginning with the day after the day on
which the notice is given.
The Minister must—
consider any representations received in accordance with the notice,
and
in light of those representations—
decide whether to impose the penalty, and
make any changes to the terms of the proposed penalty that
the Minister considers appropriate.
Where the Minister decides not to impose a penalty on the person, the Minister
must give the person a notice to that effect.
Where the Minister decides to impose a penalty on the person, the Minister
must give the person a penalty decision notice.
A penalty decision notice is a notice—
informing the person of the decision that a penalty should be imposed
on the person,
stating the amount of the penalty,
setting out the reasons for the penalty being of that amount,
explaining that the person can apply for a review of the decision within
the period of 28 days beginning with the day after the day on which
the decision notice is given, and
explaining that if the person does not seek a review within that period,
the penalty notice will be given after the end of that period.
If a review of the decision is requested in accordance with the penalty decision
notice, the penalty may not be imposed until after a review has been carried
out.
If no such review is requested, the penalty may be imposed after the period
mentioned in
subsection (2)
(d)
.
Where a review of the decision that a penalty should be imposed is requested
following receipt of a penalty decision notice, the Minister must carry out a
review of that decision.
On a review, the Minister may—
uphold the decision to impose the penalty and the amount of the
penalty,
uphold the decision to impose the penalty but change its amount, or
cancel the decision to impose a penalty.
Where the Minister makes a decision within
subsection (2)
(a)
or
(b)
, the
Minister must—
give the person a notice in accordance with section 59 , and
inform the person of the right of appeal under section 60 .
Where the Minister makes a decision within
subsection (2)
(c)
, the Minister
must give the person a notice to that effect.
A penalty under
section 50
or
53
is imposed by giving a person a notice (a
“penalty notice”) requiring the person to pay a penalty of a specified amount
to the Minister on or before a specified day.
A person may not be given more than one penalty notice in respect of the
same act or omission.
Where a person is liable under
section 53
to a penalty for a failure to provide
information, and the penalty is calculated by reference to a daily rate, the
failure to provide information by the end of each day in relation to which
the daily rate accrues is to be treated as a separate omission for the purposes
of
subsection (2)
.
In this section, “specified” means specified in the penalty notice.
A person may appeal against a penalty notice to the appropriate court.
An appeal must be brought within the period of 28 days beginning with the
day after the day on which the Minister complies with
section 58
(3)
.
On an appeal under subsection (1) , the appropriate court may—
uphold the penalty notice,
revoke the penalty notice, or
amend the penalty notice.
Subsection (5) applies where—
an appeal is against a penalty notice under
section 50
(penalty relating
to fraud), and
court proceedings other than an appeal against a penalty notice have
reached a final determination, on at least the balance of probabilities,
that the person to whom the notice was given—
carried out or conspired to carry out, or
in a case to which
section 51
applies, consented to or connived
in the act or omission which constituted,
the fraud to which the penalty relates.
For the purposes of the appeal against a penalty notice, that final
determination is determinative of the question whether the person carried
out the fraud.
The Minister may by regulations make further provision about appeals against
a penalty notice.
The regulations may, among other things, provide for appeals to be heard at
the same time as proceedings mentioned in
section 10
(1)
(a)
(proceedings to
recover a claimed amount).
Regulations under this section are subject to the negative procedure.
In this section, “the appropriate court” means—
the First-tier Tribunal, or
such other court or tribunal as may be specified in regulations under
this section.
An amount payable by a person in accordance with a penalty notice carries
interest (“late payment interest”) for each day in the period beginning with
the interest start day and ending with the day of payment.
The interest start day is the day after the specified day included in a penalty
notice in accordance with
section 59
(1)
.
The late payment interest rate applicable to a day in the interest period is the
percentage per year found by adding 2.5 to the Bank of England rate
applicable to the day.
The Bank of England rate applicable to a day is the official bank rate
announced by the Bank of England Monetary Policy Committee at its most
recent meeting prior to the day.
Late payment interest is not payable on late payment interest.
The Minister must issue a code of practice about the administration of penalties
under
section 50
, including about the making of decisions about the imposition
and amount of a penalty.
The code of practice must include provision about circumstances in which,
and the extent to which, the Minister considers that it would be appropriate
to discount the amount of a penalty as a result of cooperative conduct by the
person on whom the penalty is imposed.
The Minister may from time to time revise and reissue the code of practice.
The Minister must lay the code of practice, or any reissued code of practice,
before Parliament.
The Minister may not give a penalty notice to a person under
section 50
in
relation to an act or omission which constitutes an offence if the person has,
in relation to that act or omission, been found guilty of that offence.
A person may not be found guilty of an offence in relation to an act or
omission if the person has paid a penalty in response to a penalty notice
given under
section 50
in relation to that act or omission.
The Minister must appoint an independent person to carry out reviews of
the exercise of the Minister’s functions under this Part.
After each review, the independent person must as soon as practicable—
prepare a report on the review, and
submit the report to the Minister.
On receiving a report, the Minister must—
publish it, and
lay a copy before Parliament.
Each review must consider the extent to which—
functions under this Part have been exercised in compliance with the
requirements of this Part, relevant codes of practice and relevant
guidance, and
Each report must contain any recommendations which the independent person
considers appropriate in light of the review to which it relates.
The Minister must consult the independent person before giving a direction
under subsection
(1)
.
The Minister may disclose information to the independent person, or to a
person acting on behalf of the independent person, for the purposes of reviews
being carried out under section
64
The Minister may by regulations confer functions on a person for the purposes
of securing compliance with section
64
.
Regulations under subsection (4) are subject to the negative procedure.
The following decisions, if not made by the Minister personally, may be made
only by an individual authorised by the Minister for the purposes of this
section (an “authorised officer”)—
deciding to give a recovery notice under section 11 (1) ;
deciding to make a direct deduction order under section 17 (1) ;
deciding to vary a direct deduction order under section 29 (1) ;
deciding to make a deduction from earnings order under section 38 (1) ;
deciding to vary a deduction from earnings order under section 46 ;
deciding to give a notice of intent under section 56 (2) ;
deciding to impose a penalty under
section 50
or
53
(and to give a
notice for that purpose under
section 59
).
Subsection (3) applies where—
the Minister is required by virtue of a provision of this Part to review
a decision mentioned in
subsection (1)
, and
the decision was made by an authorised officer.
The review must be carried out by—
an authorised officer of a higher grade than the authorised officer who
made the decision, or
the Minister personally.
An individual may not be an authorised officer unless the individual is
employed in the civil service of the state in the Minister’s department.
This section applies in relation to any provision for the processing of
information made by or under this Part.
The provision does not require or authorise any processing of information
that—
contravenes the data protection legislation, or
is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of the
Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
But the provision is to be taken into account in determining whether the
processing of information would contravene the data protection legislation.
The disclosure of information in accordance with the provision (as read subject
to
subsection (2)
) does not breach—
any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure,
or
any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however
imposed).
The provision does not require or authorise the disclosure or obtaining of
information in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege could
be maintained in legal proceedings without the agreement of the person
entitled to maintain that claim.
Subsection (5) does not apply in relation to the provisions of the Police and
Criminal Evidence Act 1984 as applied by section 7.
In this section, “data protection legislation” and “processing” have the same
meanings as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act).
Subject to the following provisions of this section, this Part binds the Crown
and applies in relation to Crown premises as it applies in relation to any
other premises.
In this section, “Crown premises” means premises held, or used by, or on
behalf of the Crown.
If the Minister or the Secretary of State certifies that it appears appropriate
in the interests of national security that powers of entry conferred by this
Part should not be exercisable in relation to Crown premises specified in the
certificate, those powers are not exercisable in relation to those premises.
No power of entry conferred by, or by virtue of, this Part may be exercised
in relation to—
land belonging to His Majesty in right of His private estates, or
premises occupied for the purposes of either House of Parliament.
In
subsection (5)
(a)
, the reference to His Majesty’s private estates is to be read
in accordance with section 1 of the Crown Private Estates Act 1862.
Schedule 2 contains provision—
setting up the Public Sector Fraud Authority (“the PSFA”), and
about the transfer to the PSFA of functions conferred on the Minister
under this Part.
In this Part—
“
authorised officer” has the meaning given by
section 66
;
“
bank” has the meaning given by
section 36
(1)
;
“
core functions” has the meaning given by
section 1
;
“
direct deduction order” means a regular direct deduction order or a
lump sum direct deduction order;
“
fraud” includes—
the offences in sections 1 and 11 of the Fraud Act 2006 (fraud
and obtaining services dishonestly),
the offences in sections 6 and 7 of that Act (possessing, making
or supplying articles for use in frauds), and
the offence at common law of conspiracy to defraud;
“
information” means information in the form of a document or in any
other form;
“
joint account” means an account held by more than one person;
“
liable person” has the meaning given by
section 11
(1)
;
“
lump sum direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
section
17
(5)
;
“
the Minister” means the Minister for the Cabinet Office;
“
payable amount” has the meaning given by
section 15
;
“
public authority” means a person with functions of a public nature so
far as acting in the exercise of those functions;
“
regular direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
section 17
(4)
;
“
sole account” means an account held by one person;
“
suspected fraud” is conduct which the Minister has reasonable grounds
to suspect may constitute fraud;
“
working day” means any day other than—
Saturday or Sunday, or
a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial
Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.
For the purposes of applying this Part in relation to the offences in sections
6 and 7 of the Fraud Act 2006 (possessing, making or supplying articles for
use in frauds), references in this Part to fraud against a public authority are
to be read as including the commission of those offences by—
in relation to section 6 of the Fraud Act 2006, possessing or having
control of an article for use in the course of or in connection with a
fraud against a public authority, and
in relation to section 7 of that Act, making, adapting, supplying or
offering to supply an article—
knowing that it is designed or adapted for use in the course
of or in connection with fraud against a public authority, or
intending it to be used to commit, or assist in the commission
of, fraud against a public authority.
In this Part, references to giving a notice or other document (however
expressed), include sending the notice or document by post.
For the purposes of this Part—
court proceedings (including an appeal) are not finally determined
until any appeal relating to the proceedings has been withdrawn,
abandoned or determined (ignoring any possibility of an appeal out
of time with permission), and
a final determination is the determination reached when court
proceedings are finally determined.
Regulations under this Part are to be made by statutory instrument.
A power to make regulations under any provision of this Part includes power
to make—
consequential, supplementary, incidental, transitional or saving
provision;
different provision for different purposes.
Where regulations under this Part are subject to “the affirmative procedure”,
the regulations may not be made unless a draft of the statutory instrument
containing them has been laid before, and approved by a resolution of, each
House of Parliament.
Where regulations under this Part are subject to “the negative procedure”,
the statutory instrument containing them is subject to annulment in pursuance
of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
Any provision that may be made by regulations under this Part subject to
the negative procedure may be made in regulations subject to the affirmative
procedure.
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
In section 109A (authorisations for investigators)—
“(A1)
An individual who for the time being has the Secretary of
State’s authorisation for the purposes of this Part is entitled—(a)
for any one or more of the purposes mentioned in
paragraphs (a) and (b) of subsection (2), to exercise any of the powers which are conferred on an authorised officer by section 109BZA ;(b)
for any one or more of the purposes mentioned in
paragraphs (c) and (d) of subsection (2), to exercise any of the powers which are conferred on an authorised officer by section 109BZB ;(c)
for any one or more of the purposes mentioned in
subsection (2), to exercise any of the powers which are conferred on an authorised officer by section 109C.”;
in subsection (1) for “Secretary of State’s” substitute “Scottish
Ministers’”;
in subsection (2)(d), after “offences” insert “or, for the purposes of
subsection
(A1)
, other DWP offences”;
in subsection (8), for “109B and 109C below” substitute “109B to 109C”.
In section 109B (power to require information), in the heading, after
“information” insert “: officers authorised by Scottish Ministers”.
“109BZA Power to require information about entitlement etc: officers
authorised by Secretary of State(1)
An authorised officer may give a person (“P”) a written notice (an
“information notice”) requiring P to give an authorised officer the information described in the notice where the officer has reasonable grounds for suspecting that P—(a)
is a person falling within subsection (2) of section 109B, and
(b)
has or may have possession of or access to any information
about any matter that is relevant for any one or more of the purposes mentioned in section 109A(2)(a) or (b) (entitlement to benefits etc).(2)
Information may be specified in an information notice only if it is
reasonable for the authorised officer to require the information for one or more of the purposes mentioned in section 109A(2)(a) or (b).(3)
An authorised officer may require P to give specified information only
if the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that P has or is able to access the information.(4)
Subsections (2E) to (4) of section 109B apply to an information notice
under this section as they apply to a notice under that section.(5)
Nothing in this section limits the powers conferred on the Secretary
of State by Schedule 3B.109BZB Power to require information about suspected fraud etc: officers
authorised by Secretary of State(1)
An authorised officer may give a person (“P”) a written notice (an
“information notice”) requiring P to give an authorised officer specified information where the officer—(a)
has reasonable grounds to suspect that a person has committed,
is committing or intends to commit a DWP offence, and(b)
considers that it is necessary and proportionate to require the
specified information for a purpose mentioned in section 109A(2)(c) or (d) (investigating compliance with the relevant social security legislation etc).(2)
Information may be specified in an information notice only if it relates
to a person who is identified (by name or description) in the information notice as—(b)
a member of that person’s family (within the meaning of Part
7 of the Contributions and Benefits Act).(3)
An authorised officer may require P to give specified information only
if the officer has reasonable grounds to suspect that P has or is able to access the information.(4)
An information notice must set out—
(a)
the identity (by name or description) of the person to whom
the information requested relates;(b)
how, where and the period within which the information must
be given;(c)
information about the consequences of not complying with the
notice.(5)
The power under this section to require P to give information includes
power to—(a)
take copies of or extracts from information;
(b)
require P to provide information in a specified form;
(c)
if any specified information is not given to an authorised officer,
require P to state, to the best of P’s knowledge and belief, both where that information is and why it has not been given to the authorised officer.(6)
Subsection (2E) of section 109B (communications data) applies to an
information notice under this section as it applies to a notice under that section.(7)
In this section—
“
information” means information in the form of a document or
in any other form;“
specified” means—(a)
specified, or described, in the information notice, or
(b)
falling within a category that is specified or described
in the information notice.(8)
Nothing in this section limits the powers conferred on the Secretary
of State by Schedule 3B.”
In section 109BA (power of Secretary of State to require electronic access to
information)—
in the heading, omit “of Secretary of State”;
“(A1)
Subject to subsection (2) below, where it appears to the
Secretary of State—(a)
that a person keeps any electronic records,
(b)
that the records contain or are likely, from time to time,
to contain information about a matter that is relevant for one or more of the purposes mentioned in section 109A(2)(c) or (d), and(c)
that facilities exist under which electronic access to those
records is being provided, or is capable of being provided, by that person to other persons,the Secretary of State may require that person to enter into arrangements under which authorised officers are allowed such access to those records.”;
in subsection (1), for “Secretary of State”, in both places it occurs,
substitute “Scottish Ministers”;
in subsection (2)—
in paragraph (a), after “subsection”, in the first place it occurs,
insert “(A1) or”, and
(i)
in the case of arrangements entered into
under subsection (A1), section 109BZB;(ii)
in the case of arrangements entered into
under subsection (1), section 109B.”;
in subsection (3), after “subsection” insert “(A1) or”;
in subsection (4)—
after “subsection” insert “(A1) or”, and
(a)
in the case of arrangements entered into under
subsection (A1), section 109BZB;(b)
in the case of arrangements entered into under
subsection (1), section 109B.”
The Social Security Fraud Act 2001 is amended as follows.
Section 3 (code of practice about use of information powers) is amended in
accordance with
subsections (3)
and
(4)
.
“(A1)
The Secretary of State must issue a code of practice relating to the
exercise of the powers that are exercisable by an authorised officer under section 109BZB of the Administration Act.”
In subsection (1), for “Secretary of State” substitute “Scottish Ministers”.
Section 4 (arrangements for payments in respect of information) is amended
as follows.
“(A1)
The Secretary of State must ensure that such arrangements (if any)
are in force as the Secretary of State thinks appropriate for requiring or authorising, in such cases as the Secretary of State thinks fit, the making of such payments as the Secretary of State considers appropriate in respect of compliance with relevant obligations by any person.(A2)
In subsection (A1) , “relevant obligation” means an obligation to provide
information, or access to information, under section 109BZB or 109BA of the Administration Act.”
In subsection (1)—
for “Secretary of State” substitute “Scottish Ministers”;
for “he thinks”, in both places it occurs, substitute “they think”;
for “he considers” substitute “they consider”.
Omit subsection (4).
In Part 7 (information), before section 121E (and the italic heading before it)
Schedule
3B
makes provision about a power for the Secretary of State
to obtain information for the purposes of identifying incorrect payments
of certain benefits.”
insert—
“Eligibility verification
121DB
Eligibility verification
Part 2
of
Schedule 3
to this Act makes amendments to the Proceeds of Crime
Act 2002.
After
section 121DB
of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (inserted
by section
74
of this Act) insert— The Secretary of State must appoint an independent person to carry After each review, the independent person must as soon as prepare a report, and submit the report to the Secretary of State. On receiving a report, the Secretary of State must— publish it, and lay a copy before Parliament. The first review must relate to the period of 12 months beginning with Subsequent reviews must relate to subsequent periods of 12 months. Each review must consider the extent to which— the Secretary of State’s exercise of powers under
Schedule 3B
has complied with the requirements of the Schedule and any
code of practice in force under
Part 5
of the Schedule during
the period,
the actions taken by persons given an eligibility verification the exercise of the Secretary of State’s powers under
Schedule The Secretary of State may disclose information to the independent Subsection
(1)
does not authorise the processing of information that— would contravene the data protection legislation; is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of But subsection
(1)
is to be taken into account in determining whether A disclosure of information under subsection
(1)
(as read subject to any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however In this section "the data protection legislation" and “processing” have
“121DC
Independent review
(1)
out reviews of the exercise of the Secretary of State’s functions under
Schedule 3B
(eligibility verification measures).
(2)
practicable—
(a)
(b)
(3)
(a)
(b)
(4)
the day on which
section 74
of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error
and Recovery) Act 2025 comes fully into force.
(5)
(6)
(a)
(b)
notice have complied with the requirements of
Schedule 3B
, and
(c)
3B
has been effective in identifying, or assisting in identifying,
incorrect payments of relevant benefits during the period
covered by the review.
(7)
121DD
Independent review: further provision
(1)
person appointed under
section 121DC
(1)
, or to a person acting on
behalf of the independent person, for the purposes of reviews being
carried out under section
121DC
.
(2)
(a)
(b)
the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
(3)
the processing of information would contravene the data protection
legislation.
(4)
subsection
(2)
) does not breach—
(a)
disclosure, or
(b)
imposed), subject to subsection
(2)
.
(5)
the same meanings as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3
of that Act).”
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
“109D Powers of entry, search and seizure in England and Wales
(1)
This section confers functions on and in relation to authorised
investigators by applying provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (“the 1984 Act”) with modifications.(2)
The functions are exercisable only in relation to premises and items
in England and Wales.(3)
The provisions of the 1984 Act listed in subsection (4) apply in relation
to investigations of DWP offences conducted by authorised investigators as they apply in relation to investigations of offences conducted by police officers, subject to the modifications in Schedule
3ZC .(4)
The provisions are—
(a)
section 8(1) to (5) (power of justice of the peace to authorise
entry and search of premises);(b)
section 9(1) and Schedule 1 (special provisions as to access);
(c)
section 15 (search warrants: safeguards);
(d)
section 16 (execution of warrants);
(e)
section 19 (general power of seizure etc);
(f)
section 20 (extension of powers of seizure to computerised
information);(g)
section 21 (access and copying);
(h)
section 22 (retention);
(i)
section 117 (reasonable use of force);
(j)
sections 10 to 14, 23 and 118 (interpretation provisions), so far
as necessary for the application of the provisions mentioned in paragraphs (a) to (i) .(5)
For the purposes of this section and Schedule 3ZC an authorised
investigator is an individual who is authorised by the Secretary of State to exercise the powers conferred by this section.(6)
An individual may be so authorised only if the individual is an official
of a government department and—(a)
is a higher executive officer, or
(b)
has a grade that is equivalent to, or higher than, that of a higher
executive officer.”
After
Schedule 3ZB
(inserted by
section 92
(3)
of this Act) insert, as
Schedule
3ZC
, the Schedule in
paragraph 1
of
Schedule 4
to this Act.
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
“109E Powers of entry, search and seizure in Scotland
Schedule 3ZD confers functions that are exercisable only in relation
to premises and items in Scotland and that correspond to the functions conferred by section 109D in relation to England and Wales.”
After
Schedule 3ZC
(inserted by
section 76
(3)
of this Act) insert, as Schedule
3ZD, the Schedule in
paragraph 2
of
Schedule 4
to this Act.
After
section 109E
of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (inserted
by section
77
of this Act) insert— Subject to subsections
(2)
and
(3)
, the powers conferred by section
109D
and by
Schedule 3ZD
, bind the Crown and apply in relation to If the Secretary of State certifies that it appears appropriate in the No power of entry conferred by, or by virtue of, the provisions land belonging to His Majesty in right of His private estates, premises occupied for the purposes of either House of In this section— “Crown premises” means premises held, or used by, or on the reference to His Majesty’s private estates is to be read in
“109F
Entry, search and seizure: Crown etc application
(1)
Crown premises as they apply in relation to any other premises.
(2)
interests of national security that powers of entry conferred by this
Part should not be exercisable in relation to Crown premises specified
in the certificate, those powers are not exercisable in relation to those
premises.
(3)
mentioned in
subsection (1)
may be exercised in relation to—
(a)
or
(b)
Parliament.
(4)
(a)
behalf of the Crown, and
(b)
accordance with section 1 of the Crown Private Estates Act
1862.”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, in section 111 (delay, obstruction etc of inspector)—
in paragraph (a) of subsection (1), after “officer” insert “, or authorised
investigator,”, and
“(2A)
In subsection (1)(a), “authorised investigator” means an
individual who is authorised by the Secretary of State to exercise the powers conferred by section 109D or Schedule
3ZD .”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after
section 109F
(inserted
by
section 78
of this Act) insert— The appropriate court may, on an application by the Secretary of State order the delivery of the relevant property to the person if its owner cannot be ascertained, make any other order about An order under
subsection (1)
(a)
may include provision for the An order under
subsection (1)
(b)
may not provide for the destruction An order under
subsection (1)
(b)
(“the first order”) does not prevent Where an order is made following a further application— the order may not provide for the destruction or disposal of the order may otherwise contain such provision as to the timing In this section—
“ in relation to England and Wales, a magistrates’ court, in relation to Scotland, the sheriff;
“
“109G
Disposal of property
(1)
or a person with an interest in relevant property—
(a)
appearing to the court to be its owner, or
(b)
the relevant property.
(2)
Secretary of State to make any changes to the relevant property that
the court considers necessary for the purpose of avoiding or reducing
any risk of the relevant property being used in the commission of an
offence.
(3)
or disposal of relevant property until the end of the period of 6 months
beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(4)
further applications being made for an order under
subsection (1)
in
respect of the relevant property to which the first order applies.
(5)
(a)
the relevant property before the end of the period of 6 months
beginning with the day on which the first order was made,
but
(b)
of the destruction or disposal of the relevant property as the
court thinks fit.
(6)
appropriate court” means—
(a)
and
(b)
relevant property” means tangible property which has come into
the possession of the Secretary of State in the course of, or in
connection with, an investigation into a DWP offence.”
The Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 is amended as follows.
“(w)
paragraph 4 (3) of Schedule 3ZD to the Social Security
Administration Act 1992.”
“(j)
paragraph 2 (1)(e) and (f) of Schedule 3ZD to the Social Security
Administration Act 1992.”
In Part 1 of Schedule 1 (powers of seizure to which section 50 of the Act The power of seizure conferred by
paragraph 2
(1)
(d)
of
Schedule
applies), after paragraph 56 insert—
“Social Security Administration Act 1992
56ZA
3ZD
to the Social Security Administration Act 1992.”
Part 2 of the Police Reform Act 2002 (complaints and misconduct) is amended
as follows.
In section 10 (general functions of the Director General of the Independent
Office for Police Conduct)—
(gd)
to carry out such corresponding functions in relation
to DWP investigators acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by section 109D of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 powers for DWP investigators).”,
“26H DWP investigators
(1)
The Secretary of State may make regulations conferring functions on
the Director General in relation to DWP investigators acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by section 109D of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 powers for DWP investigators).(2)
Regulations under this section may, in particular—
(a)
apply (with or without modifications), or make provision
similar to, any provision of or made under this Part;(b)
make provision for payment by the Secretary of State to, or in
respect of, the Office or in respect of the Director General.(3)
The Director General and the Parliamentary Commissioner for
Administration may jointly investigate a matter in relation to which—(a)
the Director General has functions by virtue of this section,
and(b)
the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration has
functions by virtue of the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967.(4)
The Secretary of State may disclose information to the Director General
or to a person acting on the Director General’s behalf, for the purposes of the exercise by the Director General or by any person acting on the Director General’s behalf, of a DWP complaints function.(5)
The Director General and the Parliamentary Commissioner for
Administration may disclose information to each other for the purposes of the exercise of a function—(a)
by virtue of this section, or
(b)
under the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967.
(6)
Regulations under this section may, in particular, make—
(a)
further provision about the disclosure of information under
subsection (4) or (5);(b)
provision about the further disclosure of information that has
been so disclosed.(7)
A disclosure of information authorised by or under this section does
not breach—(a)
any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the
disclosure, or(b)
any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however
imposed).(8)
No provision made by or under this section authorises a disclosure
of information that—(a)
would contravene the data protection legislation (but in
determining whether a disclosure would do so, the power conferred by this section is to be taken into account), or(b)
is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of
the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.(9)
In this section—
“
data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data
Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act);“
DWP complaints function” means a function in relation to the
exercise of functions conferred by section 109D of the Social Security Administration Act 1992;“
DWP investigator” means an authorised investigator within the
meaning given by section 109D of that Act.”
The Police and Fire Reform (Scotland) Act 2012 (Consequential Provisions
and Modifications) Order 2013 (S.I. 2013/602) is amended as follows.
““
DWP investigator” means an authorised investigator within the meaning
given by paragraph 6 of Schedule 3ZD to the Social Security Administration Act 1992;”.
In Article 3 (agreements to investigate serious incidents), after paragraph 17B The Commissioner and the Secretary of State may enter into an A “serious incident involving DWP investigators” has the same
insert—
“(17C)
agreement for the Commissioner to investigate and report, where requested
to do so by the Secretary of State, on any serious incident involving DWP
investigators acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by Schedule
3ZD
to the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (entry, search and seizure
powers).
(17D)
meaning as a “serious incident involving the police” in section 41B of the
2006 Act except that “a person serving with the police” means a DWP
investigator acting in the exercise of functions conferred on them by Schedule
3ZD
to the Social Security Administration Act 1992.”
(j)
a DWP investigator acting in the exercise of functions conferred on
them by Schedule 3ZD to the Social Security Administration Act 1992.”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after section 121D, insert— Subject to
subsection (3)
, powers of the Secretary of State under this A benefit is a devolved benefit if functions under this Part are The powers referred to in
subsection (1)
are exercisable in relation to See also
section 100
of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and
“121DZA
Devolved Benefits
(1)
Part (including powers of an individual who has the Secretary of
State’s authorisation for the purposes of this Part as mentioned in
section 109A) are not exercisable in relation to a devolved benefit.
(2)
exercisable in relation to the benefit by the Scottish Ministers by virtue
of section 53 of the Scotland Act 1998, read with section 32 of the
Scotland Act 2016.
(3)
a devolved benefit where arrangements made under section 93(1) of
the Scotland Act 1998 (agency arrangements) have the effect that the
Secretary of State is to exercise any functions of the Scottish Ministers
under this Part on behalf of the Scottish Ministers in relation to the
benefit.
(4)
Recovery) Act 2025.”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, in section 121DA (interpretation
of Part relating to enforcement), in subsection (5), at the end insert—
““ a benefit offence, any other offence relating to a benefit, payment, credit or grant an offence relating to the allocation or use of a national any attempt or conspiracy to commit an offence within
paragraph (b)
or
(c)
.”
DWP offence” means—
(a)
(b)
in relation to which the Secretary of State with responsibility
for social security exercises functions (whether or not the
benefit, payment, credit or grant concerns social security),
(c)
insurance number, and
(d)
In Part 6 of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (enforcement), after
section 109G
(inserted by
section 80
of this Act) insert— This section applies in relation to any provision for the processing of The provision does not require or authorise any processing of contravenes the data protection legislation, or is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 of But the provision is to be taken into account in determining whether The disclosure of information in accordance with the provision (as any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however The provision does not require or authorise the disclosure or obtaining In the application of
subsection (5)
in Scotland, the reference to legal A person may not be required under the provision to give information A person who provides services free of charge in relation to social The provision does not require or authorise the disclosure of— journalistic material, or excluded material,
within the meanings of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984
(see sections 11 to 13 of that Act).
But subsections (5) to (9) do not apply in relation to— the provisions of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 Schedule 3ZD. In this section “the data protection legislation”, “personal data” and
“109H
Disclosure of information etc: interaction with external constraints
(1)
information made by or under this Part so far as the provision applies
in connection with the exercise of powers by or on behalf of the
Secretary of State.
(2)
information that—
(a)
(b)
the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
(3)
the processing of information would contravene the data protection
legislation.
(4)
read subject to
subsection (2)
) does not breach—
(a)
disclosure, or
(b)
imposed).
(5)
of information in respect of which a claim to legal professional
privilege could be maintained in legal proceedings without the
agreement of the person entitled to maintain that claim.
(6)
professional privilege is to be read as a reference to confidentiality of
communications.
(7)
which tends to incriminate the person or the person’s spouse or civil
partner.
(8)
security, housing (including services that involve the provision of
accommodation) or debt, may not be required under the provision to
give personal data about persons receiving such a service free of
charge.
(9)
(a)
(b)
(10)
(a)
as applied by section 109D, and
(b)
(11)
“processing” have the same meanings as in the Data Protection Act
2018 (see section 3 of that Act).”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, in section 121DA (interpretation
of Part relating to enforcement), after subsection (7) insert— In this Part, references to giving a notice or other document (however
“(8)
expressed) include sending the notice or document by post.”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after
section 109H
(inserted
by
section 86
of this Act) insert— The Secretary of State must appoint an independent person to carry After each review, the independent person must as soon as prepare a report on the review, and submit the report to the Secretary of State. On receiving a report, the Secretary of State must— publish it, and lay a copy before Parliament. Each review must consider the extent to which — investigative functions have been exercised in compliance with the exercise of those functions has been effective in meeting Each report must contain any recommendations which the independent The Secretary of State may give the independent person appointed The Secretary of State must consult the independent person before The Secretary of State may disclose information to the independent Regulations may confer functions on a person for the purposes of The Secretary of State may comply with the duty in
section 109I
(1)
by in England and Wales, and in Scotland.”
“109I
Independent review
(1)
out reviews of the exercise of functions under sections 109A to
109H
and Schedule 3ZD (“investigative functions”) by or on behalf of the
Secretary of State.
(2)
practicable—
(a)
(b)
(3)
(a)
(b)
(4)
(a)
the requirements of provisions mentioned in subsection
(1)
, relevant codes of practice and relevant guidance, and
(b)
the purposes set out in section 109A(2).
(5)
person considers appropriate in light of the review to which it relates.
(6)
109J
Independent review: further provision
(1)
under
section 109I
(1)
directions as to the period to be covered by each
review under
section 109I
.
(2)
giving a direction under subsection
(1)
.
(3)
person, or to a person acting on behalf of the independent person, for
the purposes of reviews being carried out under
section 109I
.
(4)
securing compliance with
section 109I
.
(5)
appointing different independent persons to carry out reviews in
relation to the exercise of investigative functions—
(a)
(b)
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after section 71ZH insert— For the purposes of this section and
sections 71ZJ
and
71ZK
, an a person (“P”) misrepresents, or fails to disclose, a material in consequence of the misrepresentation or failure, P or another
and the “overpayment” is that payment or amount.
The overpayment is recoverable from P as if it were an amount is convicted of an offence (under this Act or any other agrees to pay a penalty under section 115A. The right to recover an overpayment under this section does not affect In this section and
sections 71ZJ
and
71ZK
, “non-benefit payment” Before exercising powers under this Act to recover an overpayment the Secretary of State must give a notice (an “overpayment the condition in subsection
(5)
must be met (opportunity for The Secretary of State may give P an overpayment notice only if— P has been convicted of an offence (under this Act or any other it appears to the Secretary of State that there are grounds to
in relation to the overpayment.
An overpayment notice must— state the amount that the Secretary of State regards as an provide the Secretary of State’s reasons for regarding that set out the effect of the giving of the overpayment notice, and set out P’s right to seek a review of the notice and the right to In subsection
(3)
(c)
, the reference to the effect of the giving of the invite P to agree to a penalty under section 115A in relation recover the overpayment (if P agrees to pay such a penalty, or The condition in this subsection is met where— the time for P to seek a review of the overpayment notice has if P sought a review of the notice within the time allowed, the the time for P to appeal the outcome of the review has P’s appeal (including any onward appeal) against the A person (“P”) given an overpayment notice under section
71ZJ
may that there has been no overpayment of a non-benefit payment, that the amount stated in the notice is not correct. An application under subsection
(1)
must be made before the end of On a review, the Secretary of State may— uphold the notice, amend the notice, or revoke the notice. The Secretary of State must notify P of the outcome of the review. Where an overpayment notice is upheld or varied on a review, P may that there has been no overpayment, or that the amount stated in the notice is not correct. An appeal under subsection
(5)
must be brought within the period of The First-tier Tribunal may— uphold the notice, vary the notice, or revoke the notice.”
“Recovery of non-benefit payments
71ZI
Overpayment of non-benefit payments: overview and recovery
(1)
overpayment of a non-benefit payment occurs where—
(a)
fact, and
(b)
person receives a non-benefit payment, or an amount of a
non-benefit payment, (whether directly or indirectly) that they
would not otherwise have received,
(2)
recoverable under section 71(1) if, in relation to the misrepresentation
or failure to disclose, P—
(a)
enactment), or
(b)
(3)
(4)
any other right that the Secretary of State may have to recover the
overpayment (or any other amount in relation to the non-benefit
payment).
(5)
has the meaning given by section 121DA(5).
71ZJ
Overpayment of non-benefit payments: overpayment decision and
notice
(1)
of a non-benefit payment from a person (“P”)—
(a)
notice”) to P, and
(b)
P to challenge the notice).
(2)
(a)
enactment), or
(b)
institute proceedings against P for an offence (under this Act
or any other enactment),
(3)
(a)
overpayment,
(b)
amount as an overpayment,
(c)
(d)
appeal the outcome of that review (see section
71ZK
).
(4)
overpayment notice is a reference to the Secretary of State’s powers
to—
(a)
to the overpayment;
(b)
is convicted of an offence, in relation to the overpayment).
(5)
(a)
passed without P seeking a review, or
(b)
review has taken place and—
(i)
passed without P bringing an appeal, or
(ii)
outcome of the review has been withdrawn, abandoned
or finally determined.
71ZK
Overpayment of non-benefit payments: reviews and appeals
(1)
apply to the Secretary of State for a review of the notice on the
following grounds—
(a)
or
(b)
(2)
the period of one month beginning with the day after the day on
which P was given the notice.
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(4)
(5)
appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against the notice on the following
grounds—
(a)
(b)
(6)
one month beginning with the day after the day on which P is notified
of the outcome of the review.
(7)
(a)
(b)
(c)
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
“Further provision about recovery
80A Further methods of recovery
(1)
This section applies in relation to—
(a)
section 80B (and Schedule 3ZA ) (recovery from a person’s bank
accounts etc), and(b)
section 80C (and Schedule 3ZB ) (disqualification from driving).
(2)
References to a recoverable amount are to—
(a)
an amount which is recoverable by virtue of any provision of
sections 71 to 78, and(b)
a penalty which is payable by virtue of any provision of
sections 115A to 115D,other than an amount or a penalty relating to a devolved benefit.
(3)
For the purposes of this Part—
(a)
a benefit is a devolved benefit if functions under this Part are
exercisable in relation to the benefit by the Scottish Ministers by virtue of section 53 of the Scotland Act 1998, read with section 32 of the Scotland Act 2016, but(b)
powers of the Secretary of State under section 80B (and
Schedule 3ZA) and section 80C (and Schedule 3ZB) are exercisable in relation to the recovery of an amount or a penalty relating to a devolved benefit where arrangements made under section 93(1) of the Scotland Act 1998 (agency arrangements) have the effect that the Secretary of State is to exercise any functions of the Scottish Ministers under this Part on behalf of the Scottish Ministers in relation to the benefit.(See also section 100 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025.)
(4)
References to a “liable person” are to a person liable to pay a
recoverable amount.(5)
Nothing in Schedule 3ZA or Schedule 3ZB affects any other method
of recovery or enforcement that is available in relation to a recoverable amount.(6)
The Secretary of State may not exercise a power under Schedule 3ZA or Schedule 3ZB for the purpose of recovering an amount from a liable person unless the Secretary of State has—
(a)
given the liable person a reasonable opportunity to settle their
liability in respect of the amount,(b)
notified the liable person that the Secretary of State may
exercise the power for the purpose of recovering the amount if the liable person does not settle their liability in respect of the amount, and(c)
given the liable person a summary of how the power would
be exercised.(7)
The Secretary of State may not exercise the powers under Schedule
3ZA in relation to a recoverable amount unless satisfied that it is not
reasonably possible to recover the amount by way of deductions from benefit, deductions from earnings or an adjustment of benefit.(8)
The Secretary of State may not exercise the powers under Schedule
3ZB in relation to a recoverable amount unless satisfied that it is not
reasonably possible to recover the amount by way of deductions from benefit, deductions from earnings, an adjustment of benefit or deductions from the person’s bank account.(9)
“
an adjustment of benefit” means an adjustment of benefit under,
or by virtue of, section 71 or 71ZF;“
deductions from benefit” means deductions from benefit under,
or by virtue of, section 71 or 71ZC;“
deductions from earnings” means deductions from earnings
under, or by virtue of, section 71 or 71ZD.(10)
In subsection (8) , the reference to a deduction from a person’s bank
account is a reference to a deduction by way of a direct deduction order under Schedule 3ZA .”
In section 111 (delay, obstruction etc of inspector), in subsection (1)(b), after
“otherwise than” insert “under
Schedule 3ZA
, Schedule
3B
or”.
In section 191 (interpretation), at the appropriate places insert the following
““direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
paragraph 1
of
Schedule 3ZA
;”;
““immediate DWP disqualification order” has the meaning given by
paragraph 2
(2)
of
Schedule 3ZB
;”;
““lump sum direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
paragraph
““regular direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
paragraph
“
definitions—
1
(5)
of
Schedule 3ZA
;”;
1
(4)
of
Schedule 3ZA
;”;
“suspended DWP disqualification order” has the meaning given by
paragraph 1
(3)
of
Schedule 3ZB
;”.
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
“80B Recovery from bank accounts
Schedule 3ZA (recovery from bank accounts) makes provision for a
recoverable amount to be recoverable directly from a person’s bank account.”
After Schedule 3 insert, as
Schedule 3ZA
, the Schedule in
Schedule 5
to this
Act.
In section 190 (Parliamentary control of orders and regulations), in subsection regulations making provision in reliance on
paragraph 24
(3)
of
Schedule 3ZA
; or”.
(1), after paragraph (ab) insert—
“(ac)
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended in accordance with subsections (2) and (3) .
“80C Disqualification from driving
Schedule 3ZB makes provision for a liable person to be disqualified
from driving while some or all of a recoverable amount remains unrecovered.”
After
Schedule 3ZA
(inserted by
section 91
(3)
of this Act) insert, as
Schedule
3ZB
, the Schedule in
Schedule 6
to this Act.
In section 27 (production of licence), in subsection (3), after “Child Support
Act 1991” insert “or
paragraph 5
of
Schedule 3ZB
to the Social Security
Administration Act 1992”.
In section 37 (effect of order of disqualification), in subsection (1A), at the
end of paragraph (a)—
omit the “or”, and
“(aa)
the disqualification is for a period shorter than 56 days
under paragraph 2 of Schedule 3ZB to the Social Security Administration Act 1992, or”.
In section 42 (removal of disqualification), in subsection (6), after “Act” insert
“or under
paragraph 2
of
Schedule 3ZB
to the Social Security Administration
Act 1992”.
In the Road Traffic Act 1988, in section 164 (power of constables to require
production of driving licence etc), in subsection (5), after “required under”
insert “
paragraph 5
of
Schedule 3ZB
to the Social Security Administration
Act 1992,”.
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after
section 80C
(inserted by
section 92
of this Act) insert— The Secretary of State must issue a code of practice about the exercise The code of practice must include provision about— the giving of notices to banks requiring the provision of the processing of information received in response; the circumstances in which penalties may be issued to banks; the circumstances in which the Secretary of State expects to Before issuing the code of practice for the first time, the Secretary of The requirement in
subsection (3)
may be satisfied by public The Secretary of State may from time to time revise and re-issue the The Secretary of State must lay the code of practice, or any reissued
“80D
Code of practice
(1)
of the Secretary of State’s functions under
Schedule 3ZA
and
Schedule
3ZB
.
(2)
(a)
information under
Schedule 3ZA
;
(b)
(c)
(d)
exercise functions under
Schedule 3ZB
.
(3)
State must carry out a public consultation on a draft of the code.
(4)
consultation carried out before this section comes into force.
(5)
code of practice.
(6)
code of practice, before Parliament.”
In the Social Security Administration Act 1992, after
section 80D
(inserted by
section 93
of this Act) insert— An officer of the Secretary of State who is authorised by the Secretary a magistrates’ court, the county court, and the Crown Court. In this section, “right of audience” and “right to conduct litigation”
“80E
Rights of audience
(1)
of State for the purposes of this section has a right of audience and
the right to conduct litigation in relation to proceedings for or in
connection with the recovery of overpayments under a provision of
this Part before—
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
have the same meanings as in section 119 of the Courts and Legal
Services Act 1990.”
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
In section 71ZE, omit subsection (3).
“80F Recovery of costs
Any costs which the Secretary of State reasonably incurs in recovering an amount that is recoverable under any provision of sections 71 to 80, Schedule 3ZA or Schedule 3ZB may be recovered by the Secretary of State as if they were amounts recoverable under that provision.”
“80G Recovery: further provision
(1)
Subsection (2) applies in relation to any provision for the processing
of information made by or under this Part.(2)
The provision does not require or authorise any processing of
information that—(a)
contravenes the data protection legislation, or
(b)
is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part 9 to
the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.(3)
But the provision is to be taken into account in determining whether
the processing of information would contravene the data protection legislation.(4)
The disclosure of information in accordance with the provision (as
read subject to subsection (2) ) does not breach—(a)
any obligation of confidence owed by the person making the
disclosure, or(b)
any other restriction on the disclosure of information (however
imposed).(5)
In this section, “data protection legislation” and “processing” have the
same meanings as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3 of that Act).(6)
In this Part, references to giving a notice or other document (however
expressed) include sending the notice or document by post.”
The Social Security Administration Act 1992 is amended as follows.
In section 111A (dishonest representations for obtaining benefit etc)—
in subsection (1), in the words after paragraph (b), after “legislation”
insert “or a non-benefit payment”;
“(1H)
For the purposes of subsections (1A) to (1G), references to—
(a)
a person being entitled to, or having a right to receive,
a payment under a provision of the relevant social security legislation include references to a person being entitled to, or having a right to receive, or qualifying for, a non-benefit payment, and(b)
a person’s entitlement to a payment under a provision
of the relevant social security legislation include references to a person’s entitlement to, or qualification for, a non-benefit payment.”
In section 112 (false representations for obtaining benefit etc)—
“(1ZA)
A person is guilty of an offence if, for the purpose of obtaining
a non-benefit payment for themselves or another person, they—(a)
make a statement or representation which they know
to be false, or(b)
produce or furnish, or knowingly cause or knowingly
allow to be produced or furnished, any document or information which they know to be false in a material particular.”;
“(1G)
For the purposes of subsections (1A) to (1F), references to—
(a)
a person being entitled to, or having a right to receive,
a payment under a provision of the relevant social security legislation include references to a person being entitled to, or having a right to receive, or qualifying for, a non-benefit payment, and(b)
a person’s entitlement to a payment under a provision
of the relevant social security legislation include references to a person’s entitlement to, or qualification for, a non-benefit payment.”
““
non-benefit payment” means a prescribed payment which—(a)
is not a payment of a relevant social security benefit, and
(b)
is made by the Secretary of State with responsibility for social
security for the purposes of providing financial assistance to a person, whether directly or indirectly.”
Section 115A of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (penalty as
alternative to prosecution) is amended in accordance with
subsections (2)
to
(6)
.
“(1B)
This section also applies where—
(a)
an overpayment notice has been given to a person (“P”) under
section 71ZJ (overpayment notice in relation to non-benefit payment), and(b)
in relation to the overpayment notice, the condition in
subsection (1C) is met.(1C)
The condition in this subsection is met where—
(a)
the time for P to seek a review of the overpayment notice under
section 71ZK has passed without P seeking a review, or(b)
if P sought a review of the notice within the time allowed, the
review has taken place, and—(i)
the time for P to appeal the outcome of the review
under section 71ZK has passed without P bringing an appeal, or(ii)
P’s appeal (including any onward appeal) against the
outcome of the review has been withrawn, abandoned or finally determined.”
In subsection (2)(a), after “above” insert “, or in relation to the overpayment
notice referred to in subsection (1B),”.
In subsection (3), after “(1)” insert “or (1B)”.
In subsection (8), in the words before paragraph (a), after “section” insert “,
except in relation to a case referred to in subsection (1B),”.
In section 115B of the Social Security Administration Act 1992 (penalty as
alternative to prosecution: colluding employers etc), in subsection (2)(b), after
“benefit offence” insert “or an offence in relation to an overpayment of a
non-benefit payment”.
The Social Security Fraud Act 2001 is amended as follows.
In section 6B(2) (loss of benefits in case of conviction, penalty or caution for
benefit offence)—
in paragraph (a)—
omit the words from “section 115A” to “or”, and
for the words “the corresponding provision for Northern
Ireland” substitute “penalty as alternative to prosecution in
Northern Ireland”, and
omit sub-paragraph (i) of paragraph (b).
In section 6C (section 6B: supplementary provision)—
in subsection (2)(b) omit the words “the Social Security Act 1998 or”,
and
in subsection (3) omit the words “the Social Security Act 1998 or”.
Nothing in this Part is to be taken as adding or removing functions of the
Scottish Ministers under the Social Security Administration Act 1992.
Accordingly, those functions continue to be the functions that are exercisable
under that Act by the Scottish Ministers by virtue of section 53 of the Scotland
Act 1998, read with section 32 of the Scotland Act 2016 (including where an
amendment made by this Part has the effect that a provision of the Social
Security Administration Act 1992 refers to the Scottish Ministers expressly).
Subject to
subsection (2)
, any function conferred by a provision of this Act
(including by way of amendments to another enactment) is exercisable—
so far as the function relates to investigations or enforcement, in respect
of things done or not done before the provision comes into force, and
so far as the function relates to the recovery of money, for the purposes
of recovering money which a public authority (whether or not the
public authority on which the function is conferred) was entitled to
recover before the provision comes into force.
Subsection (1) (a) does not apply in relation to the amendments made by—
section 97 (offences: non-benefit payments), and
section 98
(penalty as alternative to prosecution: extension to
non-benefit payments).
Subsection (4) applies in relation to an action—
for an amount that a relevant public authority is entitled to claim from
a person as a result of fraud which the person carried out, before the
day on which this section comes into force, in connection with
coronavirus, and
in relation to which a limitation period of less than twelve years from
the date on which the cause of action accrues would otherwise have
applied.
The time limit for bringing the action is twelve years beginning with the day
on which the relevant public authority discovers the fraud or could with
reasonable diligence discover it (whether that day is before, on or after the
day on which this section comes into force).
For the purposes of subsections (3) and (4) —
a “relevant public authority” is a person who—
exercises functions of a public nature, and
is not a devolved Scottish authority;
an authority is a “devolved Scottish authority” if its functions—
are exercisable only in or as regards Scotland, and
are wholly or mainly functions that do not relate to reserved
matters within the meaning of the Scotland Act 1998.
For the purposes of subsection
(3)
, “coronavirus” has the meaning given by
section 1(1) of the Coronavirus Act 2020.
In the Limitation Act 1980, in section 38 (interpretation), in subsection (11)—
in paragraph (a), after “1992,” insert “including as amended by the
Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025,”,
omit “or” at the end of paragraph (b), and
(d)
Part 1 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and
Recovery) Act 2025,”.
In the Prescription and Limitation (Scotland) Act 1973, in Schedule 1
(obligations affected by prescriptive periods of 5 years under section 6), in
paragraph 2(fb)(i), at the end insert “, including as amended by the Public
Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025”.
The Secretary of State or the Minister may by regulations make provision
that is consequential on this Act.
Regulations under this section may amend, repeal or revoke provision made
by or under an Act passed—
before this Act, or
later in the same session of Parliament as this Act.
Regulations under this section are to be made by statutory instrument.
A statutory instrument containing regulations under this section that amend
or repeal provision made by an Act (whether alone or with other provisions)
may not be made unless a draft of the statutory instrument has been laid
before, and approved by a resolution of, each House of Parliament.
Any other statutory instrument containing regulations under this section is
subject to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of
Parliament.
There is to be paid out of money provided by Parliament—
any expenditure incurred under, or by virtue of, this Act by a Minister
of the Crown, a person holding office under His Majesty or a
government department, and
any increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable under or by
virtue of any other Act out of money so provided.
This Act extends to England and Wales and Scotland, subject as follows.
Part 1 of this Act extends to England and Wales only.
Any amendment, repeal or revocation made by this Act has the same extent
as the provision amended, repealed or revoked.
Except as provided by
subsection (2)
, this Act comes into force on such day
as the Secretary of State or the Minister for the Cabinet Office may by
regulations appoint.
The following provisions come into force on the day on which this Act is
passed—
this Part, and
any other provision of this Act so far as it confers power to make
regulations or is otherwise necessary for enabling the exercise of such
a power on or after the day on which this Act is passed.
Different days may be appointed under subsection (1) for different purposes.
The Secretary of State or the Minister for the Cabinet Office may by regulations
make transitional or saving provision in connection with the coming into
force of any provision of this Act.
The power to make regulations under
subsection (4)
includes power to make
different provision for different purposes.
Regulations under this section are to be made by statutory instrument.
This Act may be cited as the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025.
Each reference to a constable (however expressed) is to be read as including
a reference to an authorised investigator.
Each reference to an offence is to be read as a reference to an offence of
fraud against a public authority, except for the reference to an offence in
section 21(8)(b).
Each reference to a criminal investigation is to be read as a reference to a
criminal investigation in connection with an offence of fraud against a
public authority.
Section 15 (search warrants: safeguards) is to be read as if—
in subsection (2)(c), for “articles or persons” there were substituted
“material”;
in subsection (6)(b), for “articles or persons” there were substituted
“material”.
Section 16 (execution of warrants) is to be read as if—
in subsections (3A) and (3B), for the words “a police officer of at
least the rank of inspector”, in each case, there were substituted “an
authorised investigator of at least the grade of senior executive
officer”;
“(3C)
In subsections (3A) and (3B), the references to an authorised
investigator of at least the grade of senior executive officer include—(a)
an authorised investigator who has a grade that is
equivalent to that of a senior executive officer, and(b)
an authorised investigator who is a higher executive
officer, or has a grade equivalent to that of a higher executive officer, who has been authorised in writing for the purposes of those subsections by an authorised investigator who is a grade 7 or has a grade that is equivalent to, or higher than, that of a grade 7.”;
in subsection (5)(a), the words “, if not in uniform,” were omitted;
in subsection (9)(a), for “articles or persons sought were” there were
substituted “material sought was”.
Section 21 (access and copying) is to be read as if in subsection (3)(b), the
reference to the police were a reference to an authorised investigator.
Section 22 (retention) is to be read as if—
“(1)
Subject to subsection (4), anything which has been—
(a)
seized by an authorised investigator,
(b)
taken away by an authorised investigator following
a requirement made by virtue of section 19 or 20, or(c)
seized or taken away by another person under any
enactment and accepted by an authorised investigator,may be retained so long as is necessary in all the circumstances.”;
“(2A)
Subsection (2B) applies where an authorised investigator—
(a)
has seized something or taken something away
following a requirement made by virtue of section 19 or 20 on the basis that it is evidence of an offence, and(b)
considers that the thing may be evidence that is
relevant to an investigation of an offence (whether or not the offence mentioned in paragraph (a) ) in relation to which another person has functions.(2B)
Where this subsection applies—
(a)
an authorised investigator may transfer the thing to
that person,(b)
where that person considers that the thing may be
evidence that is relevant to an investigation in relation to which that person has functions, that person may accept and retain the thing, and(c)
any provision of an enactment that applies to
anything seized or taken away by that person applies to the thing as if it had been seized or taken away by that person for the purposes of the investigation of the relevant offence.(2C)
In subsection (2B) (c) , “enactment” includes an enactment
contained in subordinate legislation within the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978.”;
“(5)
Nothing in this section affects any power of a court to make
an order under section 8 of the Public Authorities (Fraud, Error and Recovery) Act 2025.”;
subsection (6) were omitted.
Schedule 1 (special procedure) is to be read as if—
in paragraph 1, for “one or other of the sets of access conditions”
there were substituted “the first set of access conditions”;
in paragraph 2(a)(ii), for “and does not also include excluded
material” there were substituted “, or consists of or includes excluded
material,”;
paragraph 3 (second set of access conditions) were omitted;
in paragraph 12—
in paragraph (a)(i), for “either set of access conditions” there
were substituted “the first set of access conditions”;
paragraph (b) were omitted.
A body corporate called the Public Sector Fraud Authority is established.
In this Schedule, references to “the PSFA” are to that body.
The PSFA acts on behalf of the Crown.
The PSFA is to consist of—
a chair, who is to be a non-executive member,
at least 3, but not more than 6, other non-executive members,
a chief executive, and
at least 2, but not more than 5, other executive members.
The members are to be appointed in accordance with paragraphs 3 to 6 .
The Minister is to appoint the non-executive members.
A person may not be appointed as a non-executive member if the person
is a member of the PSFA’s staff.
The chair is to appoint the chief executive and the other executive members,
subject to
paragraph 5
.
The executive members are to be members of the PSFA’s staff.
The Minister may appoint a person (an “interim chief executive”) to be the
PSFA’s chief executive until the appointment of a chief executive by the
chair under
paragraph 4
(1)
first takes effect.
An interim chief executive may incur expenditure and do other things in
the name and on behalf of the PSFA until the PSFA is first constituted in
accordance with
paragraph 2
(1)
.
In exercising the power in
sub-paragraph (2)
, an interim chief executive
must act in accordance with any directions given by the Minister.
Paragraphs 4 , 7 and 9 do not apply to an interim chief executive.
The Minister may by regulations make provision about criteria which must
be met by persons in order to be appointed as members of the PSFA.
The regulations may make provision for a person to cease to be a member
of the PSFA if the person no longer meets those criteria.
Regulations under this paragraph are subject to the negative procedure.
A member of the PSFA holds and vacates office in accordance with the
terms of the member’s appointment, subject to provision made by or under
this Schedule.
A member may resign from office by giving notice to the appropriate
person.
A member may be removed from office by notice given by the appropriate
person on the grounds that the member—
has without reasonable excuse failed to discharge the member’s
functions, or
is, in the opinion of the appropriate person, unable or unfit to carry
out the member’s functions.
A person ceases to be—
a non-executive member of the PSFA upon becoming a member of
its staff;
an executive member of the PSFA upon ceasing to be a member of
its staff.
In this paragraph, “appropriate person” means—
in the case of the non-executive members, the Minister;
in the case of the executive members, the chair.
The PSFA must pay, or make provision for the payment of, such
remuneration, pensions, allowances or gratuities as the Minister determines
to or in respect of a person who is or has been a non-executive member.
Sub-paragraph (3) applies if—
a person ceases to be a non-executive member, and
the Minister determines that the person should be compensated
because of special circumstances.
Where this sub-paragraph applies, the PSFA must pay the person
compensation of such amount as the Minister may determine.
The PSFA may—
appoint employees, and
make such other arrangements for the staffing of the PSFA as it
determines.
The PSFA must pay its staff such remuneration as may be determined in
accordance with this paragraph.
The PSFA must pay, or make provision for the payment of, such pensions,
allowances, gratuities or compensation as may be determined in accordance
with this paragraph to or in respect of any person who is or has been a
member of staff of the PSFA.
Members of staff of the PSFA are to be appointed on such other terms as
may be determined in accordance with this paragraph.
A matter is determined in accordance with this paragraph if—
in the case of a matter which relates to an executive member, it is
determined by the chair;
in the case of a matter which relates to any other member of staff,
it is determined by the PSFA.
Before making a determination as to remuneration, pensions, allowances,
gratuities or compensation for the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) or (3),
the PSFA must obtain the approval of the Minister as to its policy on that
matter.
The PSFA must have regard to the need to exercise its functions effectively,
efficiently and economically.
The PSFA may authorise the following to exercise any of its functions—
a member of the PSFA,
a member of the PSFA’s staff authorised for that purpose, or
a committee or sub-committee.
An authorisation may be to such extent and on such terms as the PSFA
determines.
The PSFA may pay such remuneration and allowances as it may determine
to any person who—
is a member of a committee or a sub-committee, but
is not a member of staff of the PSFA,
whether or not that person is a non-executive member of the PSFA.
The PSFA may determine its own procedure and the procedure of any of
its committees or sub-committees.
The validity of any proceedings of the PSFA, or any committee or
sub-committee of the PSFA, is not affected by any vacancy among its
members or by any defect in the appointment of such a member.
As soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each financial year the
PSFA must prepare a report on the exercise of its functions during that
financial year.
The PSFA must send the report to the Minister.
The Minister must lay the report before Parliament and publish it.
In this Schedule, “financial year” means—
the period beginning with the date on which the PSFA is established
and ending with 31 March following that date, and
each successive period of 12 months.
The application of the PSFA’s seal must be authenticated by a signature
of—
a member of the PSFA, or
another person authorised for that purpose by the PSFA.
A document purporting to be duly executed under the PSFA’s seal or
signed on its behalf—
is to be received in evidence, and
is to be taken to be executed or signed in that way, unless the
contrary is shown.
But this paragraph does not apply in relation to any document which is,
or is to be, signed in accordance with the law of Scotland.
Subject to
sub-paragraph (2)
, the PSFA may do anything it thinks necessary
or expedient for the purposes of, or in connection with, the exercise of its
functions.
The PSFA may not—
borrow money;
accept gifts of money, land or other property.
The Minister may make one or more schemes (“transfer schemes”) for the
purpose of transferring to the PSFA such property, rights and liabilities of
a relevant person as the Minister considers appropriate for the purposes
of enabling the PSFA to exercise functions transferred to it by regulations
under
paragraph 21
.
In this paragraph, “relevant person” means—
the Secretary of State,
the Minister, or
the Chancellor of the Duchy of Lancaster.
The things that may be transferred under a transfer scheme include—
property, rights and liabilities that could not otherwise be
transferred;
property acquired, and rights and liabilities arising, after the making
of the scheme;
criminal liabilities.
A transfer scheme may make supplementary, incidental, transitional or
consequential provision and may, in particular—
create rights, or impose liabilities, in relation to property or rights
transferred;
make provision about the continuing effect of things done by a
relevant person in respect of anything transferred;
make provision about the continuation of things (including legal
proceedings) in the process of being done by, on behalf of, or in
relation to, a relevant person in respect of anything transferred;
make provision for the shared ownership or use of property;
make provision which is the same as or similar to the Transfer of
Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 2006 (S.I.
2006/246);
make other supplemental, incidental, transitional or consequential
provision.
A transfer scheme may provide for—
modifications by agreement;
modifications to have effect from the date when the original scheme
came into effect.
For the purposes of this paragraph—
references to rights and liabilities include rights and liabilities
relating to a contract of employment;
references to the transfer of property include the grant of a lease.
For the purposes of sub-paragraph (6) —
an individual who holds employment in the civil service is to be
treated as employed by virtue of a contract of employment, and
the terms of the individual’s employment in the civil service are to
be regarded as constituting the terms of the contract of employment.
In Part 2 of the table in paragraph 3 of Schedule 1 to the Public Records
“Public Sector Fraud Authority.”
Act 1958 (definition of public records), at the appropriate place insert—
In Schedule 2 to the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967 (departments
“Public Sector Fraud Authority.”
etc subject to investigation), at the appropriate place insert—
In Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the House of Commons Disqualification Act 1975
“The Public Sector Fraud Authority.”
(bodies of which all members are disqualified), at the appropriate place
insert—
In Part 6 of Schedule 1 to the Freedom of Information Act 2000 (public
“The Public Sector Fraud Authority.”
authorities to which that Act applies), at the appropriate place insert—
In Part 1 of Schedule 19 to the Equality Act 2010 (authorities subject to the
The Public Sector Fraud Authority.”
public sector equality duty), after the group of entries under the heading
“Environment, housing and development” insert—
“Fraud against the public sector
The Minister may by regulations—
provide for all or any of the functions conferred by
Chapters 1
to
5
of
Part 1
of this Act (including functions conferred by an
amendment of another enactment)—
on the Minister, to be transferred to the PSFA;
on authorised officers of the Minister, to be transferred to
authorised officers of the PSFA;
make further provision about the application, with any necessary
modifications, of
Part 1
of this Act in relation to the PSFA;
provide for the Minister to give the PSFA general or specific
directions about the exercise of its functions.
The references to functions in
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
do not include any
power or duty to make regulations or issue a code of practice.
Where, as a result of a provision of
Chapters 1
to
5
of
Part 1
of this Act, a
function is to be exercised by an authorised officer of the Minister of a
particular grade, rank or description (if not exercised by the Minister
personally), regulations made in reliance on
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
(ii)
must
provide for the function to be exercised by an authorised officer of the
PSFA of a corresponding grade, rank or description.
Regulations under sub-paragraph (1) may amend—
Part 1 of this Act, except this Schedule, and
any provision amended by Part 1 of this Act.
Regulations under sub-paragraph
(1)
are subject to the affirmative
procedure.
The Minister may by regulations amend
section 69
of this Act and this
Schedule so as to change the name of the PSFA.
Regulations under sub-paragraph (1) are subject to the negative procedure.
The Schedule to be inserted into the Social Security Administration Act The Secretary of State may, for the purposes of identifying, or the person provides, and The second step is to give to the Secretary of State the following specified details about the account (for example, sort code specified details about the account holders (for example, specified details about how the account meets the Information that amounts to transaction information or special may not be required by the Secretary of State by way of must not be given to the Secretary of State in response to But the prohibition against the requiring and giving of special In this paragraph the reference to an account which is linked to In this Schedule, references to an incorrect payment of a benefit— are references to a payment of an amount in respect of include references to payments that have been made or to whom sub-paragraph
(2)
applies, or who are described in regulations. This sub-paragraph applies to persons who— are authorised— to accept deposits, or to issue electronic money, and in the course of that activity, provide relevant accounts In sub-paragraph
(3)
, “cryptoasset” has the meaning given in the reference to accepting deposits is to carrying on the a person is authorised to accept deposits if they are an For the purposes of sub-paragraph
(2)
(a)
(ii)
, a person is authorised is an electronic money institution, and the person is authorised or registered under Part 2 of the In this paragraph, “electronic money” and “electronic money The eligibility indicators in an eligibility verification notice must The eligibility indicators may be criteria to be met by a single The eligibility indicators must not include personal data. An eligibility verification notice must specify a period within The period specified— must begin with the day on which the notice is given, and must not be less than 14 days. An eligibility verification notice must give details about— the right to seek a review of the notice under paragraph
13
, the right to appeal against the notice under
paragraph 14
, and
the penalties that may be imposed under
Part 2
of this If it does so, the eligibility verification notice must set out the Each such period must not be less than 14 days. An eligibility verification notice may not require a person to Data is historic, in relation to an eligibility verification notice, if An eligibility verification notice may require a person to provide An eligibility verification notice may require information— to be compiled or collated in a specified manner; to be provided in a specified way (including by electronic The Secretary of State may vary or revoke an eligibility verification Information given to the Secretary of State in response to an to identify, or assist in identifying, incorrect payments of in criminal or civil proceedings relating to such payments,
but not for any other purpose.
This Schedule does not require or authorise any processing of contravenes the data protection legislation; is prohibited by any of Parts 1 to 7 or Chapter 1 of Part But the powers conferred, and the requirements imposed, by the Any processing of information carried out in accordance with any obligation of confidence owed by the person any other restriction on the processing of information If the Secretary of State considers that a person given an eligibility has failed to comply with the notice within the period has no reasonable excuse for the failure,
the Secretary of State may impose a penalty (a “fixed penalty”)
on the person.
But the Secretary of State may not impose a fixed penalty before— giving the person an opportunity to make representations if the person has sought a review of the notice under
paragraph 13
, the conclusion of that review. The Secretary of State imposes a fixed penalty by giving the A fixed penalty notice must state— the reason for the penalty, the amount of the penalty, and the period within which it must be paid. A fixed penalty may not exceed £1,000. The Secretary of State may vary or revoke a fixed penalty notice The Secretary of State may not impose more than one fixed In the case of a periodic eligibility verification notice, the Secretary The Secretary of State may impose a penalty (a “daily rate a fixed penalty has been imposed on the person in relation the Secretary of State considers that the person’s failure The Secretary of State imposes a daily rate penalty by giving the A daily rate penalty notice must state— the reason for the penalty, the daily rate of the penalty, and that the penalty will be payable in relation to each day The daily rate of a daily rate penalty may not exceed £40. The Secretary of State may vary or revoke a daily rate penalty The Secretary of State may not impose more than one daily rate In the case of a periodic eligibility verification notice, the Secretary This paragraph applies if— a daily rate penalty is imposed on a person, the failure to which the penalty relates continues for more the person has been notified that the Secretary of State The Secretary of State may make an application to the Tribunal If the Tribunal determines that an increased daily rate penalty the increased daily rate, and the date from which the increased rate begins to be In deciding the increased daily rate, the Tribunal, must, in the likely cost to the person of complying with the any benefits to the person in not complying with it, and any benefits to anyone else resulting from the person’s The Tribunal may not determine a daily rate that exceeds £1,000. The Secretary of State must notify the person of the Tribunal’s The Secretary of State may impose a penalty (an “inaccurate in complying with an eligibility verification notice, the condition A, B or C is met. Condition A is that the inaccuracy was— deliberate, or due to a failure, without reasonable excuse, by the person Condition B is that the person— knew of the inaccuracy at the time of giving the failed to inform the Secretary of State at that time, and has no reasonable excuse for the failure. Condition C is that the person— discovered the inaccuracy some time later, and failed to take reasonable steps to inform the Secretary of has no reasonable excuse for the failure. But the Secretary of State may not impose a penalty under this in the case of an inaccurate information penalty, whether the information is inaccurate; condition A, B or C is met; The Secretary of State imposes a penalty under this paragraph An information penalty notice must state— the reason for the penalty, the amount of the penalty, and the period within which it must be paid. A penalty under this paragraph may not exceed £3,000. The Secretary of State may vary or revoke an information penalty In England and Wales, a penalty imposed under this Part of this if the county court so orders, as if it were payable under if the High Court so orders, as if it were payable under In Scotland, a penalty imposed under this Part of this Schedule A person to whom an eligibility verification notice is given may An application under sub-paragraph
(1)
must be made within On a review, the Secretary of State may— revoke the notice, uphold the notice, or vary the notice. After a review has been carried out, the Secretary of State must— notify the person who applied for the review of the if the outcome was to vary the notice, give the person the Where an application for a review of an eligibility verification the notice is of no effect until the application is determined if the notice is upheld or varied, the period for compliance A person who is given an eligibility verification notice may appeal the person is not a person to whom an eligibility the notice is not in accordance with this Schedule; it is unduly onerous to comply with the notice. An appeal under sub-paragraph
(1)
must be brought within the the day on which the eligibility verification notice was if the person seeks a review of the notice under
paragraph On an appeal under sub-paragraph
(1)
, the Tribunal may— amend the eligibility verification notice, revoke the eligibility verification notice, or dismiss the appeal. Where an appeal under sub-paragraph
(1)
is brought against an A person on whom a penalty is imposed under
Part 2
of this the penalty; the amount of the penalty; in the case of a daily rate penalty, the period during which But a person may not appeal against a decision of the Tribunal An appeal under sub-paragraph
(1)
may not be brought after the On an appeal under sub-paragraph
(1)
, the Tribunal may— revoke the decision to impose the penalty; amend the amount of the penalty; amend the period within which all or part of the penalty dismiss the appeal. If an appeal is brought under sub-paragraph
(1)
, the penalty If the Tribunal confirms or varies an eligibility verification notice within such period as may be specified by the Tribunal, if the Tribunal does not specify a period, within such A decision by the Tribunal on an appeal under this Part of this The Secretary of State must issue a code of practice about The code of practice must include provision about— the exercise of the power to issue an eligibility verification the processing, use and retention of information given in the circumstances in which the Secretary of State will the imposition of penalties in relation to an eligibility reviews under paragraph
13
. Before issuing the code of practice, the Secretary of State must The Secretary of State must lay the code of practice before The requirement in sub-paragraph
(3)
may be satisfied by public The Secretary of State may from time to time revise and re-issue updates to references to legislation or documents which in the opinion of the Secretary of State, other minor In this Schedule “relevant benefit” means any of the following universal credit; employment and support allowance; state pension credit. Regulations may amend this paragraph so as to add, or remove, Regulations under sub-paragraph
(2)
may add a type of benefit In this Schedule “relevant account” means a personal account a current account, a savings account, or an investment account,
including such an account which operates by reference to
electronic money.
For the purposes of sub-paragraph
(1)
— “personal account” means an account held by one or more a current account includes any account— in which individuals can hold, and from which which is designed to allow the holder’s money to
but does not include credit card accounts or current
account mortgages;
“electronic money” has the meaning it has in the Electronic In this Schedule a reference to a person holding an account a person holding an account jointly with one or more an account being, in any way, in the person’s name,
and “holder” is to be read accordingly.
The condition is that P— is able to identify accounts provided by the other person For the purposes of sub-paragraph
(5)
, two persons are in the one of them is a subsidiary of the other, or both of them are subsidiaries of the same body corporate. In sub-paragraph
(7)
, “subsidiary” has the meaning given by In this Schedule, references to giving a notice or other document In this Schedule—
“ any relevant social security benefit as defined in any payment mentioned in subsection (2)(d) of
“
“
“
“
“
“
“
“
“ a state pension under Part 1 of the Pensions Act a retirement pension, including a Graduated a shared additional pension under Part 2 of that
“ may enable the identification of the subject matter may enable the identification of a party to such a
but does not include information which relates to the
payment of a relevant benefit into the account;
“ Nothing in this Schedule limits the powers conferred on the
1992 after Schedule 3A is—
“Schedule 3B
Eligibility verification
Part 1
Power to require information
Power to require information by way of an eligibility verification notice
1
(1)
assisting in identifying, incorrect payments of a relevant benefit,
give a person of a type mentioned in paragraph
2
a notice (an
“eligibility verification notice”) requiring the person to take the
following steps.
(2)
(a)
(3)
information for each identified account—
(a)
and account number),
(b)
their names and dates of birth), and
(c)
eligibility indicators.
(4)
category data—
(a)
an eligibility verification notice, and
(b)
such a notice.
(5)
category data does not prohibit the requiring and giving of data
to establish that an individual is in receipt of the specified relevant
benefit.
(6)
(7)
an account into which a specified relevant benefit is paid is to
an account held by the same person who holds the account into
which that benefit is paid.
(8)
(a)
that benefit which is not equal to the amount for which
the benefit recipient is eligible, and
(b)
that may be made.
Types of person to whom an eligibility verification notice can be given
2
(1)
(a)
(b)
(2)
(a)
(i)
(ii)
(b)
into which a relevant benefit may be paid.
(3)
(4)
section 84A of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
(5)
(a)
regulated activity of accepting deposits for the purposes
of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (see section
22 of that Act and article 5 of the Financial Services and
Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 (S.I.
2001/544)), and
(b)
authorised person or an exempt person in relation to the
carrying on of that activity for the purposes of the
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
(6)
to issue electronic money if the person—
(a)
(b)
Electronic Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) in
relation to carrying on the activity of issuing electronic
money.
(7)
institution” have the meanings given by regulation 2(1) of those
Regulations (and references to the issue of electronic money are
to be construed in accordance with those Regulations).
Eligibility indicators
3
(1)
be criteria which indicate that the specified relevant benefit may
have been, or may be, incorrectly paid.
(2)
account or by two or more accounts combined.
(3)
Further provision about eligibility verification notices
4
(1)
which the person given the notice must comply with the notice
to avoid liability to a penalty under
Part 2
of this Schedule.
(2)
(a)
(b)
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Schedule.
(4)
(5)
periods within which the person must comply with the eligibility
verification notice for each specified interval.
(6)
(7)
examine historic data, except for the purpose set out in
sub-paragraph
(9)
.
(8)
it relates to a time before the beginning of the period of one year
ending with the day on which the notice is given.
(9)
the date that an account which meets an eligibility indicator first
began to meet that indicator.
(10)
(a)
(b)
transmission to a specified address or portal).
(11)
notice by giving notice to the person to whom it was given.
Use of information obtained
5
eligibility verification notice (“EVM information”) may be used—
(a)
any benefit, or
(b)
Restrictions on processing and data protection
6
(1)
information that—
(a)
(b)
9 of the Investigatory Powers Act 2016.
(2)
Schedule are to be taken into account in determining whether
the processing of information would contravene the data
protection legislation.
(3)
this Schedule (as read subject to sub-paragraph
(1)
) does not
breach—
(a)
processing the information, or
(b)
(however imposed).
Part 2
Penalties
Fixed penalty for failure to comply with an eligibility verification notice
7
(1)
verification notice—
(a)
specified, and
(b)
(2)
(a)
about their compliance, and
(b)
(3)
person a notice of the penalty (a “fixed penalty notice”).
(4)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(5)
(6)
by giving notice to the person to whom it was given.
(7)
penalty in respect of an eligibility verification notice except a
periodic eligibility verification notice.
(8)
of State may not impose more than one fixed penalty in respect
of each specified interval.
Daily rate penalty for continuing failure to comply
8
(1)
penalty”) on a person if—
(a)
to a failure to comply with an eligibility verification notice,
and
(b)
to comply without reasonable excuse is continuing.
(2)
person a notice of the penalty (a “daily rate penalty notice”).
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
by the end of which the person has failed to comply with
the eligibility verification notice or such earlier date as
may be specified or described in the notice.
(4)
(5)
notice by giving notice to the person to whom it was given.
(6)
penalty in respect of an eligibility verification notice except a
periodic eligibility verification notice.
(7)
of State may not impose more than one fixed penalty in respect
of each specified interval.
Increased daily rate penalties
9
(1)
(a)
(b)
than 30 days beginning with the first day on which the
daily rate penalty is payable, and
(c)
may apply for an increased daily rate penalty to be
payable.
(2)
for an increased daily rate penalty to be payable by the person.
(3)
must be paid, it must determine—
(a)
(b)
payable.
(4)
particular, have regard to—
(a)
eligibility verification notice,
(b)
(c)
non-compliance.
(5)
(6)
determination.
Penalties for inaccurate or prohibited information
10
(1)
information penalty”) on a person under this paragraph if the
Secretary of State considers that—
(a)
person has given the Secretary of State inaccurate
information, and
(b)
(2)
(a)
(b)
to take reasonable care.
(3)
(a)
information,
(b)
(c)
(4)
(a)
(b)
State, and
(c)
(5)
(6)
paragraph before giving the person an opportunity to make
representations about—
(a)
or not—
(i)
(ii)
(7)
by giving a notice (an “information penalty notice”).
(8)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(9)
(10)
notice by giving notice to the person to whom it was given.
Recovery of penalties
11
(1)
Schedule is recoverable—
(a)
an order of that court;
(b)
an order of that court.
(2)
may be enforced in the same manner as an extract registered
decree arbitral bearing a warrant for execution issued by the
sheriff court of any sheriffdom in Scotland.
Power to change maximum amount of penalties
12
Part 3
Reviews
13
(1)
apply to the Secretary of State for a review of the decision to give
the notice.
(2)
the period of 7 days beginning with the day on which the notice
is given.
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(4)
(a)
outcome of the review, and
(b)
varied notice.
(5)
notice is made under sub-paragraph
(1)
—
(a)
or withdrawn, and
(b)
(or the first period for compliance in the case of a periodic
eligibility verification notice) begins with the day on which
the outcome of the review is notified to the person to
whom the eligibility verification notice was given.
Part 4
Appeals
Appeals against eligibility verification notices
14
(1)
to the Tribunal against the notice on any of the following
grounds—
(a)
verification notice may be given;
(b)
(c)
(2)
period of 14 days beginning with—
(a)
given, or
(b)
13
, the day on which the person is notified of the outcome
of the review.
(3)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(4)
eligibility verification notice the notice is of no effect until the
appeal is determined or withdrawn, unless the Tribunal orders
otherwise.
Appeals against penalty notices
15
(1)
Schedule may appeal to the Tribunal against—
(a)
(b)
(c)
the daily amounts are payable.
(2)
to increase a daily rate penalty under
paragraph 9
.
(3)
end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which
the penalty notice in relation to the penalty being appealed was
given.
(4)
(a)
(b)
(c)
is to be paid;
(d)
(5)
which is the subject of the appeal is not payable until the appeal
is determined or withdrawn.
Appeals: further provision
16
(1)
or the imposition of a penalty on an appeal under this Part of
this Schedule, the person to whom the notice was given, or on
whom the penalty was imposed, must comply with the notice or
pay the penalty—
(a)
or
(b)
period as may be specified by the Secretary of State and
notified to the person.
(2)
Schedule is final (despite the provisions of sections 11 and 13 of
the Tribunals, Courts and Enforcement Act 2007).
Part 5
Code of practice
Requirement to issue a code of practice
17
(1)
eligibility verification notices before giving the first such notice
under this Schedule.
(2)
(a)
notice;
(b)
response to an eligibility verification notice;
(c)
regard a person as having complied with an eligibility
verification notice;
(d)
verification notice;
(e)
(3)
carry out a public consultation on a draft of the code.
(4)
Parliament.
(5)
consultation carried out before this paragraph comes into force.
Code of practice: revisions
18
(1)
the code of practice issued under
paragraph 17
.
(2)
(3)
(a)
have become out of date, or
(b)
corrections.
Part 6
General provision and interpretation
Relevant benefits
19
(1)
benefits—
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
types of benefit to, or from, the definition of “relevant benefit”.
(3)
only to the extent that the benefit is administered by, or on behalf
of, the Secretary of State.
Accounts
20
(1)
which operates as—
(a)
(b)
(c)
(2)
(a)
individuals other than an account that is provided for
purposes relating to a trade, business or profession;
(b)
(i)
individuals can withdraw, money, and
(ii)
be used for executing transactions with third
parties,
(c)
Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) (see regulation
2(1)).
(3)
includes a reference to—
(a)
other persons, and
(b)
(4)
(5)
(6)
(a)
that are within
paragraph 1
(2)
(b)
, and
(7)
same group if both are bodies corporate and—
(a)
(b)
(8)
section 1159 of the Companies Act 2006.
Service
21
(however expressed) include sending the notice or document by
post.
General interpretation
22
benefit” means—
(a)
section 121DA(7), other than a state pension, and
(b)
section 2 of the Employment and Training Act
1973, under arrangements made under that section;
daily rate penalty” means a penalty imposed under
paragraph 8
(1)
;
the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in
the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(9) of that Act);
fixed penalty” means a penalty imposed under
paragraph
7
(1)
;
notice” means notice in writing (and “notify” is to be read
accordingly);
personal data” has the same meaning as in the Data
Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(2) of that Act);
processing”, in relation to information, has the same
meaning as in the Data Protection Act 2018 (see section
3(4) of that Act);
special category data” means the types of personal data the
processing of which is prohibited (to any extent) from
time to time under Article 9 of Regulation (EU) 2016/679
of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 April
2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to
the processing of personal data and on the free movement
of such data, and repealing Directive 95/46/EC (General
Data Protection Regulation);
specified” means specified or described in an eligibility
verification notice, unless the context requires otherwise;
state pension” means—
(a)
2014;
(b)
Retirement Benefit, under Part 2 or 3 of the Social
Security Contributions and Benefits Act 1992;
(c)
Act;
transaction information”, in relation to an account, means
information which—
(a)
or the amount of a transaction completed through
the account, or
(b)
transaction who is not a holder of the account,
the Tribunal” means the First-tier Tribunal.
Relationship with other powers
23
Secretary of State by sections 109BZA and 109BZB (powers to
require information).”
The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows.
In section 330 (failure to disclose: regulated sector), after subsection (7D) Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if— the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) but for the information so obtained the person would not
insert—
“(7E)
(a)
consists of or includes information that was obtained only
in consequence of complying with an eligibility verification
notice given to the person under
paragraph 1
(1)
of Schedule
3B
to the Social Security Administration Act 1992, and
(b)
know or suspect, or have reasonable grounds for knowing
or suspecting, that another person is engaged in money
laundering.”
In section 331 (failure to disclose: nominated officers in the regulated sector), Nor does a person commit an offence under this section if— the information or other matter mentioned in subsection (3) but for the information so obtained the person would not
after subsection (6B) insert—
“(6C)
(a)
consists of or includes information that was obtained only
in consequence of complying with an eligibility verification
notice given to the person under
paragraph 1
(1)
of Schedule
3B
to the Social Security Administration Act 1992, and
(b)
know or suspect, or have reasonable grounds for knowing
or suspecting, that another person is engaged in money
laundering.”
The Schedule to be inserted in the Social Security Administration Act 1992 This Schedule contains modifications of the provisions of the Each reference to a constable (however expressed) is to be read Each reference to an offence is to be read as a reference to a DWP the reference to any other offence in section 19(3)(a), and the reference to an offence in section 21(8)(b). Each reference to a criminal investigation is to be read as a Section 15 (search warrants: safeguards) is to be read as if— in subsection (2)(c), for “articles or persons” there were in subsection (6)(b), for “articles or persons” there were Section 16 (execution of warrants) is to be read as if— in subsections (3A) and (3B), for the words “a police officer in subsection (5)(a), the words “, if not in uniform,” were in subsection (9)(a), for the words “articles or persons Section 21 (access and copying) is to be read as if, in subsection Section 22 (retention) is to be read as if— Subject to subsection (4), anything which has seized by an authorised investigator, taken away by an authorised investigator seized or taken away by another person
may be retained so long as is necessary in all the
circumstances.”;
Subsection
(2B)
applies where an authorised has seized something or taken something considers that the thing may be evidence Where this subsection applies— an authorised investigator may transfer the where that person considers that the thing any provision of an enactment that applies In
subsection (2B)
(c)
, “enactment” includes— an enactment contained in subordinate an enactment contained in, or in an Nothing in this section affects any power of a court subsection (6) were omitted. Schedule 1 (special procedure) is to be read as if— references to “special procedure material” did not include references to “excluded material” did not include excluded section 11(1)(b) (human tissue etc), or section 11(1)(c) (certain journalistic material); in paragraph 2(a)(ii), for the words “and does not also paragraph 3 (second set of access conditions) were
after
Schedule 3ZB
(inserted by
section 92
(3)
of this Act) is—
“Schedule 3ZC
Entry, search and seizure etc: England and Wales
Introduction
1
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 mentioned in
section
109D
(4)
for the purposes of their application to authorised
investigators in accordance with
section 109D
(3)
.
General modifications
2
(1)
as including a reference to an authorised investigator.
(2)
offence, except for—
(a)
(b)
(3)
reference to a criminal investigation in connection with a DWP
offence.
Specific modifications
3
(1)
(a)
substituted “material”;
(b)
substituted “material”.
(2)
(a)
of at least the rank of inspector”, in each case, there were
substituted “an authorised investigator of at least the grade
of senior executive officer”;
(b)
omitted;
(c)
sought were” there were substituted “material sought
was”.
(3)
(3)(b), the reference to the police were a reference to an authorised
investigator.
(4)
(a)
“(1)
been—
(a)
(b)
following a requirement made by virtue of
section 19 or 20, or
(c)
under any enactment and accepted by an
authorised investigator,
(b)
““(2A)
investigator—
(a)
away following a requirement made by
virtue of section 19 or 20 on the basis that
it is evidence of an offence, and
(b)
that is relevant to an investigation of an
offence (whether or not the offence
mentioned in
paragraph (a)
) in relation to
which another person has functions.
(2B)
(a)
thing to that person,
(b)
may be evidence that is relevant to an
investigation in relation to which that
person has functions, that person may
accept and retain the thing, and
(c)
to anything seized or taken away by that
person applies to the thing as if it had been
seized or taken away by that person for the
purposes of the investigation of the relevant
offence.
(2C)
(a)
legislation within the meaning of the
Interpretation Act 1978, and
(b)
instrument made under, an Act of the
Scottish Parliament.”;”
(c)
“(5)
to make an order under
section 109G
of the Social
Security Administration Act 1992.”;
(d)
(5)
(a)
special procedure material within section 14(1)(b)
(journalistic material, other than excluded material);
(b)
material within—
(i)
(ii)
(c)
include excluded material” there were substituted “, or
consists of or includes excluded material,”;
(d)
omitted.”
The Schedule to be inserted in the Social Security Administration Act 1992 Where, on an application by an authorised investigator, a sheriff A specific premises warrant is a warrant to exercise the powers The condition in this sub-paragraph is that there are reasonable that a DWP offence which is an indictable offence has there is material on premises to which the application the material is likely to be relevant evidence, the material does not consist of or include items subject any of the following applies— it is not practicable to communicate with a person it is not practicable to communicate with a person entry to the premises will not be granted unless a the purpose of a search may be frustrated or The power to issue a warrant under
paragraph 1
is in addition The powers granted by a warrant under
paragraph 1
are powers enter the premises; search the premises; examine any document, equipment or other item or seize any document, equipment or other item or material take a copy of or otherwise record (in any form) a require any person on the premises to provide information allowing anything inspected, seized or recorded Subject to paragraph
(3)
, a person may exercise those powers The power to seize and remove a document, equipment or other that it is evidence in relation to any offence, and it is necessary to seize it in order to prevent the evidence A person may not exercise the power to seize and remove an A person may not exercise the power to seize and remove an The powers granted by a warrant under
paragraph 1
may be A warrant under
paragraph 1
may be executed by any authorised An authorised investigator may take other persons, equipment A person so taken onto the premises may also exercise the powers The powers granted by a warrant under
paragraph 1
may be only at a reasonable hour, unless it appears to the only within the period of one month beginning with the When premises are entered in reliance on a warrant under
paragraph 1
, the authorised investigator executing the warrant— must give a copy of the warrant to any person appearing if no such copy is given during the period of entry on the must produce, on request by any person appearing to be if no person appearing to be in charge of the premises is A person exercising powers granted by a warrant under
paragraph 1
may use reasonable force if necessary, except to This section applies where a person exercises the power of seizure The person must, on request by any person appearing to be in give a receipt for the thing seized, and in the case of a document readily capable of being copied, The thing seized may be retained in the possession of the For any such purpose, a person acting on behalf of the Secretary examine the thing seized (using reasonable force if record (in whatever form) any information obtained from
Sub-paragraph (6)
applies where— something has been seized and removed, and a person who had custody or control of the thing before An authorised investigator must give the person access to the an investigation of an offence, or criminal proceedings relating to an offence.
Sub-paragraph (8)
applies where— the power in
paragraph 2
(1)
(d)
has been exercised to seize an authorised investigator considers that the thing may Where this sub-paragraph applies— an authorised investigator may transfer the thing to that where that person considers that the thing may be any provision of an enactment that applies to anything In
sub-paragraph (8)
(c)
, “enactment” includes— an enactment contained in subordinate legislation within an enactment contained in, or in an instrument made If a warrant under
paragraph 1
is executed, the person who If a warrant under
paragraph 1
is not executed, the Secretary of A warrant must be retained for 12 months by the court to which In this Schedule, an authorised investigator is an individual who An individual may be authorised as an authorised investigator is a higher executive officer, or has a grade that is equivalent to, or higher than, that of Where, on an application by an authorised investigator, a sheriff A production order is an order requiring the person who appears give the material to an authorised investigator, or give an authorised investigator access to the material. A person must comply with a production order within— the period of 10 working days beginning with the day on such longer period as may be specified in the order. The condition in this sub-paragraph is that there are reasonable a DWP offence which is an indictable offence has been material which is specified in the application is likely to the material consists of or includes— personal records within
paragraph 11
(1)
(a)
, or confidential professional material, the material is likely to be relevant evidence, other methods of obtaining the material— have been tried without success, or have not been tried because it appeared that they it is in the public interest that the material should be given, the benefit likely to accrue to the investigation if the circumstances under which the person in Where the material consists of information stored in an electronic a production order under
sub-paragraph (2)
(a)
, requires it can be taken away, and in which it is visible and legible or from which it a production order under
sub-paragraph (2)
(b)
, requires
Paragraph 4
applies in relation to material given to an authorised On an application by an authorised investigator, a sheriff may a production order could be issued in relation to material
sub-paragraphs (2)
and
(3)
of this paragraph apply. This sub-paragraph applies where there are reasonable grounds This sub-paragraph applies where any of the following apply— it is not practicable to communicate with a person entitled it is not practicable to communicate with a person entitled a production order relating to the material has not been entry to the premises will not be granted unless a warrant the purpose of a search may be frustrated or seriously the material contains information disclosure of which, in The provisions of
Part 1
of this Schedule that apply in relation Provision may be made in rules of court about proceedings under Rules of court are, without prejudice to section 305 of the Criminal In this Schedule, “items subject to legal privilege” are— communications between a professional legal adviser and communications made in connection with or in
which would be protected in legal proceedings from disclosure
by virtue of any rule of law relating to the confidentiality of
communications.
In this Schedule, “excluded material” means— personal records which a person has acquired or created human tissue or tissue fluid which has been taken for the journalistic material which a person holds in confidence of documents, or of records other than documents. A person holds material other than journalistic material in to an express or implied undertaking to hold it in to a restriction on disclosure or an obligation of secrecy A person holds journalistic material in confidence for the purposes the person holds it subject to such an undertaking, it has been continuously held (by one or more persons) In this Schedule, “personal records” means documentary and to the person’s physical or mental health, to spiritual counselling or assistance given or to be given to counselling or assistance given or to be given to the by reason of the person’s office or occupation has by reason of an order of a court has responsibilities In this Schedule, “journalistic material” means material acquired But material is only journalistic material for the purposes of this A person who receives material from someone who intends that In this Schedule, “special procedure material” means— material to which
sub-paragraph (2)
applies, and journalistic material, other than excluded material. Subject to the following provisions of this paragraph, this acquired or created it in the course of any trade, business, holds it subject— to an express or implied undertaking to hold it in to a restriction or obligation such as is mentioned Where material is acquired— by an employee from the employee’s employer and in the by a company from an associated company,
it is only special procedure material if it was special procedure
material immediately before the acquisition.
Where material is created by an employee in the course of the Where material is created by a company on behalf of an associated A company is to be treated as another's associated company for In this Schedule, “confidential professional material” means For the purposes of this Schedule—
“
“ a vehicle or vessel, a tent or moveable structure, and any other place;
“
“ a Saturday or a Sunday, or a day which is a bank holiday in Scotland under
after
Schedule 3ZC
(inserted by
section 76
(3)
of this Schedule) is—
“Schedule 3ZD
Entry, search and seizure etc: Scotland
Part 1
Normal material
Warrants for entry, search and seizure etc
1
(1)
is satisfied that the condition in
sub-paragraph (3)
is met, the
sheriff may grant a specific premises warrant.
(2)
described in
paragraph 2
in relation to premises specified in the
application.
(3)
grounds for believing—
(a)
been committed,
(b)
relates which is likely to be of substantial value (whether
by itself or with other material) to the investigation of the
offence,
(c)
(d)
to legal privilege, excluded material or special procedure
material, and
(e)
(i)
entitled to grant entry to the premises;
(ii)
entitled to grant access to the material (if different
from the person entitled to grant entry);
(iii)
warrant is produced;
(iv)
seriously prejudiced unless an authorised
investigator arriving at the premises can secure
immediate access to them.
(4)
to any other power to issue a warrant in relation to entry to or
search of premises.
Powers exercisable under a warrant
2
(1)
to—
(a)
(b)
(c)
material on the premises (including by operating a
computer or other device in order to gain access to
information);
(d)
on the premises and remove it;
(e)
document, equipment or other item or material on the
premises, or any information contained in or accessible
by means of any such document, equipment, item or
material;
(f)
or assistance for the purpose of—
(ii)
in the exercise of those powers to be better
understood.
(2)
only so far as the person considers it necessary to do so for the
purposes of investigating a DWP offence.
(3)
item or material on the premises may be exercised if the person
has reasonable grounds for believing—
(a)
(b)
being concealed, lost, altered or destroyed.
(4)
item or material unless the person considers that exercising the
power to take a copy or record it would be insufficient.
(5)
item subject to legal privilege, excluded material or special
procedure material.
(6)
subject to conditions or limitations.
Execution of warrants
3
(1)
investigator.
(2)
and materials onto the premises for the purposes of assisting in
the exercise of the powers granted by the warrant.
(3)
granted by the warrant if the person is in the company, and under
the supervision, of an authorised investigator.
(4)
exercised—
(a)
investigator executing the warrant that the purpose of a
search may be frustrated on an entry at a reasonable hour,
and
(b)
day on which it is issued.
(5)
(a)
to be in charge of the premises at the earliest opportunity
(if possible before entering the premises);
(b)
premises, must leave a copy of the warrant in a prominent
place on the premises;
(c)
in charge of the premises, proof of the person’s identity
and status as an authorised investigator;
(d)
present when the person executing the warrant is on the
premises, must leave the premises as effectively secured
against trespassers as that person found them.
(6)
enforce the requirement described in
paragraph 2
(1)
(f)
.
Seizure under paragraph 2(1)(d)
4
(1)
and removal described in
paragraph 2
(1)
(d)
.
(2)
charge of the premises—
(a)
(b)
give a copy of it.
(3)
Secretary of State for so long as the Secretary of State considers
necessary for the purposes of investigating any DWP offence
(irrespective of the purpose for which it was initially obtained).
(4)
of State may—
(a)
necessary), and
(b)
the thing seized.
(5)
(a)
(b)
it was seized, or a person acting on behalf of such a
person, requests access to it.
(6)
thing under the investigator’s supervision, unless the investigator
has reasonable grounds for believing that doing so would
prejudice—
(a)
(b)
(7)
(a)
and remove something on the basis that it is evidence of
an offence, and
(b)
be evidence that is relevant to an investigation of an
offence (whether or not the offence mentioned in
paragraph (a)
) in relation to which another person has
functions.
(8)
(a)
person,
(b)
evidence that is relevant to an investigation in relation to
which that person has functions, that person may accept
and retain the thing, and
(c)
seized or taken away by that person applies to the thing
as if it had been seized or taken away by that person for
the purposes of the investigation of the relevant offence.
(9)
(a)
the meaning of the Interpretation Act 1978, and
(b)
under, an Act of the Scottish Parliament.
Return of warrant etc
5
(1)
executed it must return it to the court from which it was issued
as soon as reasonably practicable with an endorsement
summarising the exercise of the powers in
paragraph 2
.
(2)
State must return it to the court from which it was issued as soon
as reasonably practicable with an endorsement stating that it was
not executed.
(3)
it is returned.
Authorised investigators
6
(1)
is authorised by the Secretary of State to exercise the powers
conferred by this Schedule.
(2)
only if the individual is an official of a government department
and—
(a)
(b)
a higher executive officer.
Part 2
Special procedure
Production orders
7
(1)
is satisfied that the condition in
sub-paragraph (4)
is met, the
sheriff may grant a production order.
(2)
to the sheriff to be in possession of material specified in the
application to—
(a)
(b)
(3)
(a)
which the order is made, or
(b)
(4)
grounds for believing that—
(a)
committed,
(b)
be of substantial value (whether by itself or with other
material) to the investigation of the offence,
(c)
(i)
(ii)
(d)
(e)
(i)
(ii)
were bound to fail, and
(f)
or that access to it should be given, having regard to—
(i)
the material is obtained, and
(ii)
possession of the material holds it.
(5)
form—
(a)
the material to be given in a form in which—
(i)
(ii)
can readily be produced in a visible and legible
form, and
(b)
an authorised investigator to be given access to the
material in a form in which it is visible and legible.
(6)
investigator under a production order as it applies to material
seized and removed under the power described in
paragraph
2
(1)
(d)
.
Warrants
8
(1)
grant a specific premises warrant within the meaning of
paragraph
1
(2)
where the sheriff is satisfied that—
(a)
(see
paragraph 7
(4)
), and
(b)
(2)
for believing that the material is on the premises specified or
described in the application.
(3)
(a)
to grant entry to the premises;
(b)
to grant access to the material (if different from the person
entitled to grant entry);
(c)
complied with;
(d)
is produced;
(e)
prejudiced unless an authorised investigator arriving at
the premises can secure immediate access to them;
(f)
the absence of a warrant, would be a breach of a restriction
on disclosure, or an obligation of secrecy, contained in
any enactment whenever passed.
(4)
to a specific premises warrant apply to a specific premises warrant
under this paragraph as if, at the end of
paragraph 2
(5)
, there
were inserted “other than confidential professional material or
personal records within
paragraph 11
(1)
(a)
”.
Part 3
General
Procedural rules
9
(1)
this Schedule.
(2)
Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, to be made by Act of Adjournal.
Meaning of “items subject to legal privilege”
10
(a)
their client, or
(b)
contemplation of legal proceedings and for the purposes
of those proceedings,
Meaning of “excluded material”
11
(1)
(a)
in the course of any trade, business, profession or other
occupation or for the purposes of any paid or unpaid
office and which the person holds in confidence;
(b)
purposes of diagnosis or medical treatment and which a
person holds in confidence;
(c)
and which consists—
(i)
(ii)
(2)
confidence for the purposes of this paragraph if the person holds
it subject—
(a)
confidence, or
(b)
contained in any enactment, whenever passed.
(3)
of this paragraph if—
(a)
restriction or obligation, and
(b)
subject to such an undertaking, restriction or obligation
since it was first acquired or created for the purposes of
journalism.
Meaning of “personal records”
12
other records concerning an individual (whether living or dead)
who can be identified from them and relating—
(a)
(b)
to the person, or
(c)
person, for the purposes of the person’s personal welfare,
by any voluntary organisation or by any individual who—
(i)
responsibilities for the person’s personal welfare,
or
(ii)
for the person’s supervision.
Meaning of “journalistic material”
13
(1)
or created for the purposes of journalism.
(2)
Schedule if it is in the possession of a person who acquired or
created it for the purposes of journalism.
(3)
the recipient is to use it for the purposes of journalism is to be
taken to have acquired it for those purposes.
Meaning of “special procedure material”
14
(1)
(a)
(b)
(2)
sub-paragraph applies to material, other than items subject to
legal privilege and excluded material, in the possession of a
person who—
(a)
profession or other occupation or for the purpose of any
paid or unpaid office, and
(b)
(i)
confidence, or
(ii)
in
paragraph 11
(2)
(b)
.
(3)
(a)
course of the employee’s employment, or
(b)
(4)
employee’s employment, it is only special procedure material if
it would have been special procedure material had the employer
created it.
(5)
company, it is only special procedure material if it would have
been special procedure material had the associated company
created it.
(6)
the purposes of this paragraph if it would be so treated under
section 449 of the Corporation Tax Act 2010.
Meaning of “confidential professional material”
15
material to which
paragraph 14
(2)
applies.
Other interpretation
16
authorised investigators” has the meaning given in
paragraph 6
;
premises” includes—
(a)
(b)
(c)
relevant evidence”, in relation to an offence, means anything
that would be admissible in evidence at a trial for the
offence;
working day” means a day other than—
(a)
(b)
the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971.”
The Schedule to be inserted in the Social Security Administration Act 1992 after
Schedule 3 is— Where an amount is recoverable from a liable person who holds an account A direct deduction order must be given to the bank with which the account A direct deduction order may be— a regular direct deduction order; a lump sum direct deduction order. A regular direct deduction order is an order requiring the bank— to make regular deductions from the liable person’s account, and to pay the amounts deducted to the Secretary of State. A lump sum direct deduction order is an order requiring the bank— to deduct from the liable person’s account an amount specified in to pay that amount to the Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may give a regular direct deduction order and a The Secretary of State must give a copy of a direct deduction order to— the liable person, and in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders.
Paragraphs 3
to
5
set out steps that the Secretary of State must take before The Secretary of State may make a direct deduction order in respect of any is held by a liable person, and contains an amount in which the Secretary of State considers the The Secretary of State may make a direct deduction order in respect of a But
sub-paragraph (2)
does not apply if all the holders of a joint account Before the Secretary of State makes a direct deduction order in respect of To obtain the statements, the Secretary of State must give the bank with the three months immediately before the notice is given, or such longer period, ending immediately before the notice is given, An account information notice must— contain the name of the liable person, and identify the account (for example, by number and sort code). The Secretary of State may give an account information notice relating to At any time, for the purposes of determining whether to make a direct identify every account that the liable person holds with the bank, for each identified account, give the Secretary of State the following a description of the type of account, identifiers for the account, if the account is a sole account, the balance of the account if the account is a joint account, the name of each other give the Secretary of State— the correspondence address that the bank holds for the liable in the case of a joint account, the correspondence address The Secretary of State may give— more than one account information notice, or general information more than one account information notice in respect of the same A notice under this paragraph must— set out how and when the bank must comply with the notice, and explain that the bank may be liable to a penalty under
paragraph The bank must comply with a notice given under this paragraph. A bank that is given an account information notice, or a general information the liable person; any other holder of the account in respect of which an account any other holder of an account identified in accordance with a Information given to the Secretary of State in response to a notice under Before making a direct deduction order in respect of a joint account, the The Secretary of State must presume that the liable person’s beneficial
where “N” is the number of account holders.
But the presumption does not apply where the Secretary of State has reason In making an assessment under
sub-paragraph (1)
, the Secretary of State the bank statements obtained for the account under
paragraph 3
, and
any responses to a notice under
paragraph 5
. Before making a direct deduction order, the Secretary of State must give identifying the account that would be subject to the proposed order, stating the amount that would be recoverable under the proposed setting out the terms of the proposed order, if the account is a joint account, setting out the Secretary of State’s identifying, for the benefit of the liable person, the recoverable The notice must invite the liable person and, in the case of a joint account, to make representations about the terms of the proposed order, and in the case of a joint account, to make representations about the The notice must set out the means by which, and the period within which, The period must be a period of at least one month beginning with the day The Secretary of State must— consider representations made in accordance with the notice, and in light of those representations — in the case of a joint account, make the assessment required in any case, decide whether, and in what terms, to make a A notice under
sub-paragraph (1)
may be given to the bank, including Where a notice is given to the bank before it is given to the persons to If, following the giving of a notice under this paragraph, the Secretary of The Secretary of State may make a direct deduction order only if satisfied will not cause the liable person, any other account holder, or any are otherwise fair in all the circumstances. A person is within this subsection if— they live with the liable person, or any other account holder, for they are financially dependent on the liable person or any other The total amount of deductions to be made under a regular direct deduction For the purposes of
sub-paragraph (3)
, the “relevant amount” is the amount The Secretary of State must ensure that the amount to be deducted and A regular direct deduction order must specify— the amounts, or a method for calculating the amounts, to be when those amounts are to be deducted and paid to the Secretary the penalties that may be imposed for a failure to comply (see
paragraph 20
). A regular direct deduction order may specify different amounts, or different A lump sum direct deduction order must specify— the amount, or method for calculating the amount, to be deducted, when the amount is to be deducted and paid to the Secretary of the penalties that may be imposed for a failure to comply (see
paragraph 20
). A direct deduction order may not require an amount to be deducted from A bank must comply with a direct deduction order. A direct deduction order may include provision for the bank to deduct A bank may deduct the costs to which they are entitled under a direct In complying with
paragraph 6
(1)
and
(3)
in relation to a direct deduction Where the amount in an account is lower than the amount to be deducted no deduction is to be made, and the bank must notify the Secretary of State as soon as possible. Where the amount in an account is lower than the amount to be deducted the order is to be read as requiring the deduction and payment to if, on that day, the amount in the account is lower than the amount no deduction is to be made, and the bank must notify the Secretary of State as soon as References in this paragraph to the amount to be deducted in accordance If (apart from this paragraph) a bank would be required to make a In this paragraph, “working day” means any day other than— Saturday or Sunday, or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Where a notice under
paragraph 5
(a “first notice”), or a direct deduction ensure that the account is not closed at the request of an account if the notice relates to a proposed lump sum direct deduction order, secure that no transaction takes place (except for any take the action set out in
sub-paragraph (2)
. The action is to— transfer the specified amount, or the amount in the account if that secure that no transaction takes place (except for any deduction Where a bank takes the action set out in
sub-paragraph (2)
in relation to A bank must ensure that taking the action set out in
sub-paragraph (2)
does not cause any disadvantage to the liable person, and in the case of a
joint account, any other account holder, that the liable person, and any
other account holder, would not have experienced if the bank had instead
acted in accordance with
sub-paragraph (1)
(b)
(i)
.
The requirements in
sub-paragraph (1)
cease to apply when— in relation to a first notice, a notice is given to the bank under
paragraph 5
(8)
(notice of decision not to make a direct deduction in relation to a direct deduction order— all the deductions under the order have been made, or the order is revoked. In this paragraph, “specified” means specified in, or calculated in accordance Any holder of an account to which a direct deduction order applies may The Secretary of State must give any other holders of the account an The Secretary of State must notify the applicant and any other account The Secretary of State may vary a direct deduction order (whether after an The provisions in this paragraph apply in relation to any variation of a Where the Secretary of State proposes to vary a direct deduction order the liable person, and in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders,
an opportunity to make representations about the proposed variation.
The Secretary of State may comply with
sub-paragraph (3)
at the same time A variation to a direct deduction order takes effect when the Secretary of The Secretary of State must give a copy of the varied order to the liable The Secretary of State may vary a direct deduction order so that the order the variation is requested by the liable person, and if the other account is a joint account, each of the other account Where a direct deduction order is varied under
sub-paragraph (7)
— if the order is varied so that it applies to an account administered the reference in
sub-paragraph (5)
to “the bank” is to the
paragraph 7
(5)
applies to the order as varied as it applied the Secretary of State must notify the bank given the original if the order is varied so that it applies to a joint account— the requirement in
sub-paragraph (6)
is to give a copy of if the original order applied to a joint account, the Secretary The steps set out in
paragraphs 3
to
5
do not apply to a decision to vary The Secretary of State may revoke a direct deduction order. The Secretary of State must revoke a direct deduction order as soon as the recoverable amount has been recovered, or the liable person to whom the order relates has died. Where the Secretary of State revokes a direct deduction order, the Secretary the bank to which the order was given, the liable person (apart from in a case within
sub-paragraph (2)
(b)
), in the case of a joint account, each of the other account holders. For the purposes of determining whether to revoke or vary a direct to give the Secretary of State statements for an account held by the the three months immediately before the notice was given, such longer period, ending immediately before the notice to take the steps set out in
paragraphs (a)
to
(c)
of
paragraph 3
(5)
. Sub-paragraphs
(6)
,
(7)
and
(10)
of
paragraph 3
apply in relation to a further Before giving a further information notice to a bank requiring statements that the notice will be given, and of the effect of the notice. A further information notice may be given to the bank before, at the same The Secretary of State may suspend and re-start the requirement to make The Secretary of State must notify the liable person and, in the case of a A bank ceases to be subject to a direct deduction order on becoming aware This paragraph applies where the Secretary of State— makes a direct deduction order, varies a direct deduction order, or decides not to vary a direct deduction order in response to an Any of the following persons (“relevant persons”) may apply to the the liable person to whom the order relates, and in the case of a joint account, any other account holder. An application under
sub-paragraph (2)
must be made before the end of given a copy of the order or the order as varied, or notified of the decision not to vary the order. An application for a review under this paragraph may not be made on, or On a review, the Secretary of State may— uphold the decision, vary the order, or revoke the order. After a review has been carried out, the Secretary of State must notify the See
paragraph 13
for provisions about varying a direct deduction order. A relevant person may appeal to the First-tier Tribunal against— the making of a direct deduction order, the variation of a direct deduction order, or a refusal to vary a direct deduction order after a request by a A relevant person may not appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
in relation to made representations in accordance with
paragraph 5
,
12
or
13
(or, sought a review under
paragraph 18
,
in relation to the matter.
Sub-paragraph (2)
does not apply where a direct deduction order is varied An appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
must be brought within the period of given a copy of the direct deduction order, or the varied deduction notified under
sub-paragraph (3)
or, where a review was sought,
paragraph 18
(6)
, in a case within
sub-paragraph (1)
(c)
. An appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
may not be made on, or include, any Where a relevant person appeals under this paragraph in relation to a On an appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
, the First-tier Tribunal may— amend the direct deduction order; revoke the direct deduction order; dismiss the appeal. In this paragraph, “relevant person” has the meaning that it has in
paragraph 18
. If the Secretary of State has reasonable grounds to believe that a bank— has failed to comply with a requirement imposed by or under this has no reasonable excuse for the failure,
the Secretary of State may impose on the bank a penalty of £500.
The Secretary of State may not impose a penalty before giving the bank The Secretary of State imposes a penalty by giving the bank a notice of the A penalty notice must state— the amount of the penalty, the period within which it must be paid, and the bank’s right to appeal against the penalty. The Secretary of State may vary or revoke a penalty notice by giving a In England and Wales, a penalty imposed under this Part of this Schedule if the county court so orders, as if it were payable under an order if the High Court so orders, as if it were payable under an order In Scotland, a penalty imposed under this Part of this Schedule may be A bank on which a penalty is imposed under
paragraph 20
may appeal to An appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
may not be brought after the end of On an appeal under
sub-paragraph (1)
the Tribunal may confirm or quash If an appeal is brought under
sub-paragraph (1)
, the penalty which is the In this Schedule—
“ to accept deposits, or to issue electronic money;
“
“
“
“
“ For the purposes of
paragraph (a)
in the definition of “bank” in
sub-paragraph (1)
— the reference to accepting deposits is to carrying on the regulated a person is authorised to accept deposits if they are an authorised For the purposes of
paragraph (b)
in the definition of “bank” in
sub-paragraph (1)
, a person is authorised to issue electronic money if— the person is an electronic money institution, and the person is authorised or registered under Part 2 of the Electronic In
sub-paragraph (3)
, “electronic money” and “electronic money institution” In this Schedule, references to an amount in an account are to an amount In this Schedule, references to a person holding an account include a person holding an account jointly with one or more other persons, a person being a signatory, or one of the signatories, to an account, an account being, in any other way, in the person’s name,
and “holder” is to be read accordingly.
Regulations may make further provision about direct deduction orders. Regulations under this paragraph may, among other things, make about how notices and orders are to be given by the Secretary of about how notices and information are to be given to the Secretary about the calculation of amounts to be deducted, including— about establishing whether deductions would cause a person about amounts which are, or are not, to be taken into account setting a maximum percentage that is less than 40% for the purposes amending the amount for the time being specified in
paragraph about the duties of banks in relation to direct deduction orders, about costs which a bank may recover by virtue of
paragraph 8
or about the interaction between direct deduction orders under this Regulations under this paragraph may, among other things, apply this In
sub-paragraph (3)
, “cryptoasset” has the meaning given in section 84A Before making relevant regulations in reliance on
sub-paragraph (2)
(a)
,
(b)
,
(f)
or
(g)
, the Secretary of State must consult— persons who appear to the Secretary of State to represent the such other persons (if any) as the Secretary of State considers Before making relevant regulations in reliance on
sub-paragraph (3)
, the persons who appear to the Secretary of State to represent the such other persons (if any) as the Secretary of State considers In this paragraph, “relevant regulations” means— the first regulations made in reliance on the provisions in question, any subsequent regulations made in reliance on those provisions impose new duties on banks, or make changes to existing duties or provisions which, in the
“Schedule 3ZA
Recovery of amounts from bank accounts etc
Part 1
deductions from accounts
Direct deduction orders
1
(1)
with a bank, the Secretary of State may make an order (a “direct deduction
order”) in respect of that account.
(2)
is held.
(3)
(a)
(b)
(4)
(a)
(b)
(5)
(a)
the order, and
(b)
(6)
lump sum direct deduction order in respect of the same account.
(7)
(a)
(b)
(8)
making a direct deduction order.
Accounts which may be the subject of a direct deduction order
2
(1)
account which—
(a)
(b)
liable person has a beneficial interest.
(2)
joint account only if the liable person does not hold a sole account in respect
of which a direct deduction order may be made which would be likely to
result in the recovery of the recoverable amount within a reasonable period
of time.
(3)
are liable persons in relation to the same recoverable amount.
Requirement for banks to provide information
3
(1)
a liable person’s account, the Secretary of State must obtain and consider
bank statements for the account covering a period of at least three months.
(2)
which the Secretary of State believes the liable person holds the account a
notice (an “account information notice”) requiring the bank to give the
Secretary of State statements for the account covering—
(a)
(b)
as may be specified in the notice.
(3)
(a)
(b)
(4)
an account only for the purpose of determining whether to make a direct
deduction order in respect of the account.
(5)
deduction order in relation to a liable person, the Secretary of State may
give a notice (“a general information notice”) to a bank requiring the bank
to—
(a)
(b)
information—
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
at the date that it is identified, and
(iv)
account holder, and
(c)
(i)
person, and
(ii)
that the bank holds for each other account holder.
(6)
(a)
notice, in relation to the same recoverable amount;
(b)
account.
(7)
(a)
(b)
20
if it fails to do so without reasonable excuse.
(8)
(9)
notice, must not notify any of the following people that the notice has been
given—
(a)
(b)
information notice is given;
(c)
general information notice.
(10)
this paragraph may be used by the Secretary of State for purposes connected
with the Secretary of State’s functions under this Part of this Act, but not
for any other purpose.
Joint accounts
4
(1)
Secretary of State must make an assessment of the liable person’s beneficial
interest in the amounts which are or may be in the account from time to
time.
(2)
interest entitles them to the following share in any amounts which are or
may be in the account from time to time—
(3)
to believe that the liable person’s beneficial interest is different from the
presumed share.
(4)
must have regard to—
(a)
(b)
Further requirements before making a direct deduction order
5
(1)
the liable person, and, in the case of a joint account, each of the other
account holders, a notice—
(a)
(b)
order,
(c)
(d)
duty to make an assessment as to the liable person’s beneficial
interest and the presumption that applies (see
paragraph 4
), and
(e)
amount to which the order relates.
(2)
each other account holder—
(a)
(b)
liable person’s beneficial interest in amounts in the account.
(3)
representations may be made.
(4)
after the day on which the notice is given.
(5)
(a)
(b)
(i)
under
paragraph 4
(1)
, and
(ii)
direct deduction in respect of the account.
(6)
before it is given to the persons to whom it is required to be given under
that sub-paragraph (and for the effect of giving the notice to the bank see
paragraph 11
(restrictions on accounts)).
(7)
whom it is required to be given, in reliance on
sub-paragraph (6)
, the notice
must be given to the other persons as soon as reasonably practicable after
being given to the bank.
(8)
State decides not to make a direct deduction order, the Secretary of State
must, as soon as reasonably practicable, notify every person given a notice
under
sub-paragraph (1)
of the decision.
Amounts of deductions
6
(1)
on the basis of information received by virtue of
paragraphs 3
and
5
that
the terms of the order—
(a)
person within
sub-paragraph (2)
to suffer hardship in meeting
essential living expenses, and
(b)
(2)
(a)
some or all of the time, or
(b)
account holder.
(3)
order in relation to any period of one month must not exceed 40% of the
relevant amount.
(4)
that the Secretary of State reasonably expects to be credited to the account
in question in (or in respect of) a typical month during the period for which
the order will have effect, having regard to all statements given to the
Secretary of State in relation to the account (see paragraphs
3
(2)
and
15
(1)
).
(5)
paid to the Secretary of State under a direct deduction order does not
exceed the recoverable amount to which the order relates.
Content and effect of direct deduction orders
7
(1)
(a)
deducted (see
paragraph 6
),
(b)
of State, and
(c)
(2)
methods for calculating the amounts, to be deducted at different times.
(3)
(a)
(b)
State, and
(c)
(4)
a person’s bank account before the end of the period of one month
beginning with the day after the day on which the Secretary of State
complies with
paragraph 1
(7)
.
(5)
Bank’s administrative costs
8
(1)
from the liable person’s account an amount specified in, or calculated in
accordance with, the order, for the purposes of meeting costs reasonably
incurred by the bank in complying with the order.
(2)
deduction order immediately prior to making the deduction which is to
be paid to the Secretary of State under the order.
(3)
order the Secretary of State must take account of any deductions to be
made under the order by virtue of
sub-paragraph (1)
.
Insufficient funds
9
(1)
in accordance with a lump sum direct deduction order at the time that the
bank is (apart from this sub-paragraph) required to make the deduction—
(a)
(b)
(2)
in accordance with a regular direct deduction order at the time that the
bank is (apart from this sub-paragraph) required to make the deduction—
(a)
the Secretary of State to take place on the same day the following
week, and
(b)
to be deducted in accordance with the order—
(i)
(ii)
possible.
(3)
with a direct deduction order include any amounts to be deducted in respect
of a bank’s costs by virtue of provision under
paragraph 8
(1)
.
Non-working days
10
(1)
deduction and payment under a direct deduction order on a day that is
not a working day, the obligation to make the deduction and payment
applies in relation to the next working day after that day.
(2)
(a)
(b)
Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.
Restrictions on accounts
11
(1)
order under
paragraph 1
, is given to a bank in relation to a liable person’s
account, the bank must—
(a)
holder, and
(b)
or the order is a lump sum direct deduction order—
(i)
deduction under the order) which would result in the
amount in the account falling below the specified amount
or, if the amount in the account is already below that
amount, falling any further, or
(ii)
(2)
(a)
is less than the specified amount, from the account into a different
account (a “hold account”) created by the bank for the sole purpose
of holding that transferred amount, and
(b)
under the order) which would result in the amount in the hold
account falling below the amount transferred.
(3)
a lump sum direct deduction order, the order is to be read as if it required
deductions to be made from the hold account.
(4)
(5)
(a)
order) or a direct deduction order is given to the bank under
paragraph 1
;
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(6)
with, a first notice or direct deduction order.
Applications to vary
12
(1)
apply to the Secretary of State to vary the order.
(2)
opportunity to make representations in relation to the application.
(3)
holders of the Secretary of State’s decision on the application.
Variation
13
(1)
application by an account holder or otherwise).
(2)
direct deduction order, including one that results from a review under
paragraph 18
.
(3)
other than under
sub-paragraph (7)
, the Secretary of State must give—
(a)
(b)
(4)
as complying with
paragraph 12
(2)
.
(5)
State gives the varied order to the bank or, if later, in accordance with the
terms of the order as varied.
(6)
person and, in the case of a joint account holder, each other account holder.
(7)
applies to another account held by the liable person (including an account
administered by a different bank) only if—
(a)
(b)
holders consents.
(8)
(a)
by another bank—
(i)
bank which administers that account,
(ii)
to the original order, and
(iii)
order of the effect of the variation, and
(b)
(i)
the order to each other holder of that joint account, and
(ii)
of State must notify each other holder of that joint account
of the effect of the variation.
(9)
a direct deduction order.
Revocation of direct deduction order
14
(1)
(2)
reasonably practicable after becoming aware that—
(a)
(b)
(3)
of State must give a notice of the revocation to—
(a)
(b)
and
(c)
Further information notices
15
(1)
deduction order, the Secretary of State may give a bank a notice (a “further
information notice”) requiring the bank—
(a)
liable person covering—
(i)
or
(ii)
was given, as may be specified in the notice;
(b)
(2)
information notice as they apply in relation to a notice under that paragraph.
(3)
to be given in respect of a joint account, the Secretary of State must notify
each account holder other than the liable person—
(a)
(b)
(4)
time as or after the Secretary of State complies with
paragraph 13
(3)
.
Suspending of direct deduction orders
16
(1)
deductions and payments under a regular direct deduction order at any
time by notifying the bank to which the order was given.
(2)
joint account, each other account holder, if the requirement is suspended
or re-started under this paragraph.
Cessation on death of liable person
17
of the liable person’s death.
Reviews
18
(1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
application under
paragraph 12
.
(2)
Secretary of State for a review of the decision to make, to vary or not to
vary the order—
(a)
(b)
(3)
the period of one month beginning with the day after the day on which
the applicant was—
(a)
(b)
(4)
include, any ground relating to the existence or amount of a recoverable
amount (unless the amount is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
(5)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(6)
applicant and other relevant persons of the outcome of the review.
(7)
Appeals
19
(1)
(a)
(b)
(c)
relevant person.
(2)
a matter within
paragraph (a)
,
(b)
or
(c)
of that sub-paragraph unless they—
(a)
in relation to a variation of a direct deduction order, requested the
variation), or
(b)
(3)
on a review under
paragraph 18
.
(4)
one month beginning with the day after the day on which the appellant
was—
(a)
order, in a case within
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
or
(b)
, or
(b)
(5)
ground relating to the existence or amount of a recoverable amount (unless
the amount is said to be incorrectly stated in the order).
(6)
direct deduction order, the First-tier Tribunal may suspend the requirement
on the bank to which the order has been given to give effect to the order
for some or all of the time until the appeal (including any onward appeal)
is withdrawn, abandoned or finally determined.
(7)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(8)
Part 2
Penalties
Penalties for failure to comply
20
(1)
(a)
Schedule, and
(b)
(2)
an opportunity to make representations about their compliance.
(3)
penalty (a “penalty notice”).
(4)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(5)
notice to that effect to the bank.
Recovery of penalties
21
(1)
is recoverable—
(a)
of that court;
(b)
of that court.
(2)
enforced in the same manner as an extract registered decree arbitral bearing
a warrant for execution issued by the sheriff court of any sheriffdom in
Scotland.
Appeal against a penalty notice
22
(1)
the First-tier Tribunal against the imposition of the penalty.
(2)
the period of one month beginning with the date on which the penalty
notice in relation to the penalty being appealed was given.
(3)
the decision to impose the penalty.
(4)
subject of the appeal is not payable until the appeal (including any onward
appeal) is determined or withdrawn.
Part 3
General
Interpretation
23
(1)
bank” means a person who is authorised—
(a)
(b)
direct deduction order” means a regular direct deduction order or a
lump sum direct deduction order;
joint account” means an account held by more than one person;
lump sum direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
paragraph 1
(5)
;
regular direct deduction order” has the meaning given by
paragraph
1
(4)
;
sole account” means an account held by one person.
(2)
(a)
activity of accepting deposits for the purposes of the Financial
Services and Markets Act 2000 (see section 22 of that Act and article
5 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated
Activities) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/544)), and
(b)
person or an exempt person in relation to the carrying on of that
activity for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act
2000.
(3)
(a)
(b)
Money Regulations 2011 (S.I. 2011/99) in relation to carrying on the
activity of issuing electronic money.
(4)
have the meanings given by regulation 2(1) of those Regulations (and
references to the issue of electronic money are to be construed in accordance
with those Regulations).
(5)
standing to the credit of the account.
(6)
references to—
(a)
(b)
and
(c)
Regulations
24
(1)
(2)
provision—
(a)
State under this Schedule;
(b)
of State under this Schedule;
(c)
(i)
to suffer hardship in meeting essential living expenses, and
(ii)
in calculating the amounts credited to an account for the
purposes of
paragraph 6
(3)
;
(d)
of
paragraph 6
(3)
in some or all cases;
(e)
20
(1)
to reflect a change in the value of money;
(f)
including before a direct deduction order is made;
(g)
from the Secretary of State;
(h)
Schedule and similar orders under any other enactment.
(3)
Schedule, as it applies to banks, to other types of person who provide
financial products or services (including products or services that operate
by reference to cryptoassets or any similar product or service).
(4)
of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.
(5)
(a)
interests of banks, and
(b)
appropriate.
(6)
Secretary of State must consult—
(a)
interests of persons to whom provisions about direct deduction
orders would be applied by the regulations, and
(b)
appropriate.
(7)
(a)
and
(b)
which—
(i)
(ii)
opinion of the Secretary of State, are more than minor.”
The Schedule to be inserted in the Social Security Administration Act 1992 after
Schedule 3ZA
(inserted by
section 91
(3)
of this Act) is— This Schedule applies where— the Secretary of State has sought to recover a recoverable amount some or all of the amount has not been recovered. Where the amount still to be recovered is at least £1,000, the Secretary of A suspended DWP disqualification order is an order— setting out terms of repayment with which the liable person must stating that the liable person may be subject to an immediate DWP Subject to
sub-paragraph (6)
, the court must make a suspended DWP The terms of repayment must include terms for the payment of any costs The court may not make a suspended DWP disqualification order if the needs a driving licence to earn a living, or has another essential need for a driving licence. The Secretary of State may apply for a second or subsequent suspended A suspended DWP disqualification order ceases to have effect when— revoked under
paragraph 4
, or the Secretary of State has recovered the whole of the recoverable Before determining an application under this paragraph the court must In this Schedule—
“ in England and Wales, a magistrates’ court, and in Scotland, a sheriff or a summary sheriff;
“ Subject to
sub-paragraph (6)
, if a liable person fails to comply with terms An immediate DWP disqualification order is an order— setting out terms of repayment with which the liable person must disqualifying the liable person from holding or obtaining a driving Subject to
sub-paragraph (5)
, if the court is satisfied on the balance of The period mentioned in
sub-paragraph (2)
(b)
may not be longer than 2 The court may not make an immediate DWP disqualification order if the needs a driving licence to earn a living, or has another essential need for a driving licence. Where the terms of repayment provide for repayment in instalments, the The Secretary of State may apply for more than one immediate DWP Before determining an application under this paragraph the court must The court must be satisfied that the terms of repayment set out in a On an application by the liable person or the Secretary of State, the court But the court may revoke a suspended or immediate DWP disqualification When considering an application under
sub-paragraph (1)
, the court must the Secretary of State, where the application was made by the liable the liable person, where the application was made by the Secretary
or give both the Secretary of State and the liable person an opportunity to
be heard.
The court may vary or revoke a suspended or immediate DWP the order was made without the liable person being heard despite the court considers that the liable person had a good reason for not An application under
sub-paragraph (4)
must be made within the period Before determining an application under this paragraph, the court must Where the Secretary of State has recovered the whole of the recoverable the Secretary of State must notify the court, and a court officer must make an order (without a hearing) revoking In this paragraph, references to varying a suspended or immediate DWP In
sub-paragraph (7)
(b)
, “court officer” means a member of the staff of the Where the court makes an immediate DWP disqualification order, the may require the liable person to whom the order relates to give to must transfer each driving licence received in accordance with
paragraph (a)
to the Secretary of State. For the purposes of this paragraph, “driving licence” includes any document The liable person or the Secretary of State may appeal to the appropriate a decision to, or not to, make, vary or revoke a DWP disqualification the terms of a DWP disqualification order. An appeal under this paragraph must be made within the period of 21 On an appeal under this paragraph, the appropriate appellate court may— where the appeal relates to a DWP disqualification order that has dismiss the appeal, vary the order in any way that would have been available revoke the order, or where the appeal is against a decision not to make a DWP dismiss the appeal, or make a DWP disqualification order that the court could have In this Schedule, the “appropriate appellate court” means— in England and Wales, the Crown Court, and in Scotland, the Sheriff Appeal Court. A court must give the Secretary of State and the liable person notice if— it makes or refuses to make a suspended or immediate DWP it makes or refuses to make an order under
paragraph 4
, or it allows an appeal against a suspended or immediate DWP Notice under this paragraph is to be given to the Secretary of State in such The court may grant permission for an application or an appeal after the Regulations may make provision for the purposes of enabling the court to In this paragraph, the reference to “a court” is to “the court” and “the A public authority that holds information about a liable person’s driving Section 109(1) of the Road Traffic Act 1988 (Northern Ireland licences) has For the purposes of that section, the reference in
paragraph 2
(2)
(b)
to
“Schedule 3ZB
Disqualification from driving
Suspended DWP disqualification orders
1
(1)
(a)
from a liable person, and
(b)
(2)
State may apply to the court for a suspended DWP disqualification order
(but see
sub-paragraph (7)
).
(3)
(a)
comply, and
(b)
disqualification order if the person fails to comply with the terms
of repayment.
(4)
disqualification order if the court is satisfied, on the balance of probabilities,
that the liable person has, without reasonable excuse, not paid the
recoverable amount.
(5)
awarded by the court to the Secretary of State relating to the order.
(6)
court considers that the liable person—
(a)
(b)
(7)
DWP disqualification order in relation to a recoverable amount even if the
amount still to be recovered has fallen to less than £1,000.
(8)
(a)
(b)
amount and the costs mentioned in
sub-paragraph (5)
from the
liable person.
(9)
give the Secretary of State and the liable person an opportunity to be heard.
(10)
the court” means—
(a)
(b)
driving licence” means a licence to drive a motor vehicle granted
under Part 3 of the Road Traffic Act 1988.
Immediate DWP disqualification orders
2
(1)
of repayment in a suspended DWP disqualification order, the Secretary of
State may apply to the court for an immediate DWP disqualification order.
(2)
(a)
comply, and
(b)
licence for such period as the court considers likely to result in the
person paying the recoverable amount to the Secretary of State
(3)
probabilities that the liable person has failed, without reasonable excuse,
to comply with terms of repayment in a suspended DWP disqualification
order, the court must make an immediate DWP disqualification order on
an application under
sub-paragraph (1)
.
(4)
years beginning with the day on which the order is made.
(5)
court is of the opinion that the liable person—
(a)
(b)
(6)
failure to pay a single instalment is not to be regarded as a failure to comply
with the terms unless the liable person fails to repay the entire recoverable
amount by the time the final instalment is due.
(7)
disqualification order in relation to the same suspended DWP
disqualification order.
(8)
give the Secretary of State and the liable person an opportunity to be heard.
Terms of repayment
3
suspended or immediate DWP disqualification order are ones with which
the liable person has the means to comply.
Variation and revocation of orders
4
(1)
may, where some of the recoverable amount to which a suspended or
immediate DWP disqualification order relates has been recovered, make
an order varying, or revoking, a suspended or immediate DWP
disqualification order.
(2)
order in reliance on
sub-paragraph (1)
only where the court considers that
revoking the order will increase the likelihood of the remainder of the
recoverable amount being recovered.
(3)
invite representations from—
(a)
person, and
(b)
of State,
(4)
disqualification order on an application from the liable person where—
(a)
being given an opportunity to be heard under
paragraph 1
(9)
, and
(b)
taking advantage of the opportunity to be heard.
(5)
of 21 days beginning with the day after the day on which the liable person
is given notice that the order has been made.
(6)
give the Secretary of State and the liable person an opportunity to be heard.
(7)
amount and the costs mentioned in
paragraph 1
(5)
from a liable person
subject to an immediate DWP disqualification order—
(a)
(b)
the immediate DWP disqualification order.
(8)
disqualification order includes varying the terms of repayment set out in
the order.
(9)
court authorised by the court for the purposes of that sub-paragraph.
Holding of driving licence for period of disqualification
5
(1)
court—
(a)
the court by, or on, a specified date any driving licence which the
liable person holds, and
(b)
(2)
by virtue of which a person is authorised under Part 3 of the Road Traffic
Act 1988 to drive a motor vehicle in Great Britain.
Appeals
6
(1)
appellate court on a point of law against—
(a)
order;
(b)
(2)
days beginning with the day after the day on which notice of the decision
to which it relates is given.
(3)
(a)
been made—
(i)
(ii)
to the court that made it, or
(iii)
(b)
disqualification order—
(i)
(ii)
made.
(4)
(a)
(b)
DWP disqualification orders: further provision
7
(1)
(a)
disqualification order,
(b)
(c)
disqualification order.
(2)
manner and to such addresses, and to contain such particulars, as the
Secretary of State may require.
(3)
periods mentioned in
paragraphs 4
(5)
and
6
(2)
(as the case may be) where
satisfied that there is a compelling reason to do so.
(4)
assess the matters mentioned in
paragraphs 1
(6)
,
2
(5)
and
3
.
(5)
appropriate appellate court”.
Information sharing
8
licence may, on a request by the Secretary of State, disclose that information
to the Secretary of State for the purpose of facilitating the exercise of the
Secretary of State’s functions under this Schedule.
Northern Ireland licences
9
(1)
effect subject to any provision made by or under this Schedule.
(2)
disqualifying a person from holding or obtaining a driving licence is to be
read as a reference to disqualifying a person from driving any vehicle
under Part 3 of the 1988 Act.”
A
bill
to
Make provision about the prevention of fraud against public authorities and the making of erroneous payments by public authorities; about the recovery of money paid by public authorities as a result of fraud or error; and for connected purposes.
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