The purpose of this Act is to protect and promote the sustainability of English
football.
Explanatory notes to the Bill, prepared by the Department for Culture, Media and Sport, have been ordered to be published as HL Bill 41—EN.
Baroness Twycross has made the following statement under section 19(1)(a) of the Human Rights Act 1998:
In my view the provisions of the Football Governance Bill [HL] are compatible with the Convention rights.
A
bill
to
Establish the Independent Football Regulator; to make provision for the licensing of football clubs; to make provision about the distribution of revenue received by organisers of football competitions; and for connected purposes.
B e it enacted by the King’s most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:—
The purpose of this Act is to protect and promote the sustainability of English
football.
For that purpose—
Part 2
establishes the Independent Football Regulator (referred to in
this Act as “the IFR”) and makes provision about the exercise of its
functions;
Part 3
makes provision for the IFR to grant operating licences to
football clubs;
Part 4
provides for the IFR to make determinations about whether
persons are suitable to be owners or officers of football clubs;
Part 5
imposes various duties on football clubs, the owners and officers
of football clubs and the organisers of football competitions;
Part 6
provides a mechanism whereby the IFR can make an order
requiring the organiser of a football competition to distribute revenue
received by that organiser;
Part 9
makes provision about reviews of and appeals from decisions
of the IFR;
Part 10
makes general provision, including about the disclosure of
information by and to the IFR.
For the purposes of this section, English football is sustainable if it—
continues to serve the interests of fans of regulated clubs, and
continues to contribute to the economic or social well-being of the
local communities with which regulated clubs are associated.
For the meanings of “English football”, “regulated club” and for other key
terms used in this Act, see
section 2
.
In this Act—
“
club” or “football club” means a body that operates a team;
“
competition”, in relation to football, means a league (or a division of a
league), a cup, a tournament or any other competition;
“
competition organiser” means a body that organises a competition;
“
English football” means all regulated clubs and all specified competitions,
taken together;
“
football” means association football;
“
the IFR” means the Independent Football Regulator;
“
licensed club” means a club that holds an operating licence;
“
operating licence” means a provisional operating licence or a full
operating licence (see
section 15
);
“
regulated club” means a club that operates a relevant team (whether or
not the club is a licensed club);
“
relevant team” means a team that is entered into, is a member of, or
participates in a specified competition;
“
specified competition” means a competition specified in regulations
under subsection
(3)
;
“
specified competition organiser” means a body that organises a specified
competition;
“
team” means a football team.
For the purposes of this Act, a club “operates” a team if it is responsible for
the team’s entry into, membership of, or participation in a competition.
The Secretary of State may by regulations specify a competition; but the
Secretary of State may not specify a competition unless the teams that are
entered into it, or that are members of it, or that participate in it are exclusively
or predominantly English teams.
For the purposes of
subsection (3)
, a team is an “English team” if the ground
at which the team customarily plays its home matches is in England.
Before making regulations under subsection (3) the Secretary of State—
must assess whether it would be appropriate to exercise the power
and, if so, how,
in carrying out the assessment, must consult—
the IFR,
the Football Association, and
any other persons the Secretary of State considers appropriate,
and
must publish and lay before Parliament a report on the outcome of
the assessment.
Subsection (5) does not apply in respect of the first regulations made under subsection (3) .
In this Act, references to an “owner” of a club are to be construed in
accordance with
Schedule 1
.
For the purposes of this Act, a club’s “ultimate owner” is—
where the club has only one owner, that owner;
where the club has more than one owner and one owner exercises a
higher degree of influence or control over the activities of the club
than any other owner, that owner;
in any other case, each owner of the club who exercises a degree of
influence or control over the activities of the club that—
is the same as another owner, and
where there are other owners, is a higher degree of influence
or control than any other owner.
For the purposes of this Act, a person is an “officer” of a club if—
the person is a senior manager of the club, or
in any other case, the following table identifies the person as an officer
of the club—
Where the club is— |
the person is an officer of the club if— |
a company |
the person is a director of the company |
a body corporate other than a company |
the person is an officer of the body whose functions correspond to those of a director of a company |
a partnership |
(a)in relation to a limited partnership, the (b)in relation to any other partnership, the |
an unincorporated body other than a partnership |
the person is an officer of the body or a member of the body’s governing body |
For the purposes of this Act, a person is also an “officer” of a club if the
person—
purports to act as an officer of the club (within the meaning of subsection (1) ), or
is a person in accordance with whose directions, instructions, guidance
or advice an officer of the club (within the meaning of
subsection (1)
or paragraph
(a)
) is accustomed to act.
But a person is not to be regarded as an officer of a club by virtue of
subsection (2)
(b)
by reason only that an officer of the club (within the meaning
of
subsection (1)
or
(2)
(a)
) acts—
on advice given by that person in a professional capacity;
in accordance with instructions, a direction, guidance or advice given
by that person in the exercise of a function conferred by or under an
enactment;
in accordance with guidance or advice given by that person in their
capacity as a Minister of the Crown (within the meaning of the
Ministers of the Crown Act 1975).
For the purposes of this Act, a person is a “senior manager” of a club if, in
relation to the carrying on of the club’s activities, the person carries out a
senior management function specified, or of a description specified, for the
purposes of this section.
For the purposes of this Act—
a function is a “senior management function” in relation to the carrying
on of a club’s activities if—
the function requires a person carrying out the function to be
responsible for managing one or more aspects of the club’s
affairs, and
those aspects are such that the way in which they are managed
could give rise to serious consequences for the club;
the reference in
paragraph (a)
(i)
to managing one or more aspects of
a club’s affairs includes taking, or participating in the taking of,
decisions about how one or more aspects of those affairs should be
carried on.
In this section, “specified” means specified by the IFR in rules.
This section is subject to
section 42
(9)
(persons appointed as officers by the
IFR not to be treated as officers for the purposes of this Act).
A body corporate called the Independent Football Regulator is established.
Schedule 2 contains further provision about the IFR.
The IFR’s objectives are—
to protect and promote the financial soundness of regulated clubs
(referred to in this Act as “the club financial soundness objective”);
to protect and promote the financial resilience of English football
(referred to in this Act as “the systemic financial resilience objective”);
to safeguard the heritage of English football (referred to in this Act
as “the heritage objective”).
The IFR must, so far as reasonably practicable, exercise its functions under
this Act in a way that—
is compatible with the purpose of this Act (see section 1 ), and
advances one or more of the IFR’s objectives (see section 6 ).
The IFR must have regard to the desirability of exercising those functions in
a way that avoids any—
effects on the sporting competitiveness of any regulated club against
another regulated club;
adverse effects on the competitiveness of regulated clubs against other
clubs;
adverse effects on financial investment in English football.
In exercising those functions, the IFR must also have regard to the following
(so far as they are relevant to the exercise of those functions)—
its regulatory principles (see section 8 );
its most recent state of the game report (see section 10 );
the most recent football governance statement published by the
Secretary of State (see
section 11
);
any guidance published by it (see section 12 );
any guidance published by the Secretary of State (see section 13 ).
The IFR must keep under review the extent to which persons are complying
with obligations imposed on them under or by virtue of this Act.
The IFR’s regulatory principles are that—
it should use its resources in the most efficient, expedient and economic
way;
it should, so far as reasonably practicable, co-operate, and proactively
and constructively engage, with
clubs,
owners, senior managers and other officers of clubs, and
competition organisers;
any requirement or restriction imposed by it on a person should be
proportionate to the benefits which are expected to result from that
requirement or restriction;
it should act in a way that recognises the specific context of football
and the fact that clubs are subject to rules, requirements and restrictions
imposed by competition organisers by virtue of teams operated by
those clubs being entered into, being members of, or participating in
competitions organised by those organisers;
it should act consistently (subject to it recognising the differences
between clubs and competitions and the differences between the
circumstances affecting clubs and competitions);
it should act in a way that recognises the responsibilities of owners,
senior managers and other officers of clubs in relation to the
requirements placed on clubs under or by virtue of this Act;
it should act as transparently as reasonably practicable.
Schedule 3
contains provision about schemes for the transfer of staff and
property, rights and liabilities to the IFR.
The IFR must prepare and publish a report (a “state of the game report”) on
the state of English football so far as relevant to the exercise of the IFR’s
functions under this Act.
A state of the game report must include—
an overview of the main issues that the IFR considers to be affecting
English football,
an assessment of whether any feature, or combination of features, of
English football jeopardises, or risks jeopardising, the IFR’s ability to
advance one or more of its objectives, and
information about any other matters relating to the state of English
football, so far as relevant to the exercise of the IFR’s functions under
this Act, that the IFR considers appropriate.
Each subsequent state of the game report must be published before the end
of the period of five years beginning with the day on which the previous
report is published.
Before publishing a state of the game report, the IFR must—
publish a notice—
stating that it intends to prepare a report, and
inviting suggestions about matters to be included in the report,
prepare a draft report, having regard to any suggestions made within
the period specified in the notice, and
consult the following about the draft report—
the Football Association;
each specified competition organiser;
such other persons as the IFR considers appropriate.
The Secretary of State may prepare a statement (“a football governance
statement”) setting out the policies of His Majesty’s Government in the United
Kingdom that relate to the governance of football.
But a football governance statement may not contain any policies that are
inconsistent with the purpose of this Act or with the IFR’s objectives.
The Secretary of State may revise any football governance statement.
But the Secretary of State may not revise any football governance statement
more frequently than every three years unless—
a Parliamentary general election has taken place,
there has been a significant change in the policy of His Majesty’s
Government in the United Kingdom relating to football, or
the Secretary of State considers that the statement, or any part of it,
is inconsistent with the purpose of this Act or with the IFR’s objectives.
The Secretary of State must publish any football governance statement, or
any revised statement, prepared under this section.
The Secretary of State must lay any football governance statement, or any
revised statement, published under this section before Parliament.
The IFR must prepare guidance about the exercise of its functions under sections 21 to 25 (discretionary licence conditions).
Guidance prepared under
subsection (1)
must include a statement of the
outcomes the IFR expects or seeks to achieve in exercising those functions.
The IFR may prepare guidance about any of its other functions under this
Act.
The IFR may revise any guidance prepared under this section.
The IFR must publish any guidance, or any revised guidance, prepared under
this section.
The IFR must consult such persons as the IFR considers appropriate before
publishing—
the first guidance about any of its functions, or
revised guidance about any of its functions, unless the revisions are
minor.
The Secretary of State may prepare guidance about the exercise of the IFR’s
functions under this Act.
The Secretary of State may revise any guidance prepared under this section.
But the Secretary of State may not revise any guidance prepared under this
section more frequently than every three years unless—
the Secretary of State considers that the guidance needs to be revised
because of an amendment, repeal or modification of any provision of
this Act, or
the revision is agreed between the Secretary of State and the IFR.
The Secretary of State must publish any guidance, or any revised guidance,
prepared under this section.
The Secretary of State must consult the IFR and such other persons as the
Secretary of State considers appropriate before publishing—
guidance under this section, or
revised guidance under this section, unless the revisions are minor.
The Secretary of State must lay any guidance, or revised guidance, published
under this section before Parliament.
As soon as reasonably practicable after the end of each financial year, the IFR
must submit to the Secretary of State an annual report on the exercise of its
functions during the year.
The report must include—
a summary of the activities undertaken by the IFR during that year,
and
such other information as the Secretary of State may direct the IFR to
include in the report.
The IFR must arrange for a copy of every report under this section to be laid
before Parliament by the Secretary of State.
In this section, “financial year” means—
the period beginning with the day on which this section comes into
force and ending with 31 March in the following year, and
each successive period of 12 months.
A club may not operate a relevant team unless it holds either—
a provisional operating licence, or
a full operating licence.
A provisional operating licence authorises a club to operate a relevant team
on a provisional basis prior to the grant of a full operating licence.
A full operating licence authorises a club to operate a relevant team on an
ongoing basis.
The IFR may, in accordance with the provisions of this Part—
grant a provisional operating licence to a club that applies for one
under
section 16
;
grant a full operating licence to a club that holds a provisional
operating licence (see
section 18
).
An operating licence must specify—
the club to which it relates,
each relevant team operated by the club,
the conditions attached to the licence by the IFR under section 20 ,
any conditions attached to the licence by the IFR under section 21 , and
such other information as may be specified by the IFR in rules.
The IFR must specify the form of an operating licence in rules.
A club may apply to the IFR for a provisional operating licence.
The IFR must specify in rules—
the time by which an application must be made, and
the manner and form in which an application must be made.
An application must be accompanied by—
a personnel statement (see
subsection (4)
) and a statement explaining
why the club considers the personnel statement to be accurate,
a strategic business plan (see subsection (5) ), and
such other information and documents as may be specified by the IFR
in rules.
A “personnel statement” is a statement—
identifying each of the club’s owners and officers,
identifying the club’s ultimate owner,
setting out the job title of, or a description of the role performed by,
each of the club’s officers, and
setting out the specified senior management functions performed by
each of the club’s officers who is a senior manager.
A “strategic business plan” is a document containing—
information, in respect of the relevant period, about—
the proposed operation of the club,
the estimated costs of that operation,
how those costs are to be funded, and
the source of such funding, and
such other information as may be specified by the IFR in rules.
For the purposes of subsection (5) (a) , the “relevant period” means the period—
beginning with the day on which the application under this section
is made, and
ending no earlier than the end of the next football season after the
application is made.
This section applies where a club applies for a provisional operating licence
under
section 16
.
The IFR must grant the club a provisional operating licence if it is satisfied
that the club would—
operate a relevant team,
comply with the mandatory licence conditions (see section 20 ), and
The IFR—
must specify in the provisional operating licence the period for which
it has effect, which may be no more than three years;
must notify the club of the grant of the licence.
If the IFR is not satisfied of the matters in
subsection (2)
, it must give the
club a notice—
stating that it proposes to refuse to grant the provisional operating
licence,
explaining why it proposes to refuse to grant the licence,
inviting the club to make representations about the proposed refusal,
and
specifying the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period
of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
After complying with subsection (4) , the IFR must—
grant the provisional operating licence and notify the club of the grant,
or
refuse to grant the licence and notify the club of the refusal, giving
reasons for it.
The IFR may not grant a club a provisional operating licence under this section
except as mentioned in
subsection (2)
.
Where the IFR grants a club a provisional operating licence under this section
the IFR must specify in the notice under
subsection (3)
(b)
or
(6)
(a)
(as the
case may be) the day on which the licence comes into force, which may not
be before the day on which the club operates a relevant team.
The IFR must specify in rules—
the period within which it must make the decision whether to grant
the club a provisional operating licence,
any circumstances in which it may extend that period, and
the maximum period for which that period may be extended.
Where a club holds a provisional operating licence, the IFR must decide
whether to grant the club a full operating licence—
before the end of the period specified by virtue of section 17 (3) (a) , or
if applicable, before the end of the further period specified by virtue
of
subsection (6)
(b)
.
The IFR—
must grant a club a full operating licence if the full licence test is met
in relation to the club;
must notify the club of the grant of the licence.
The “full licence test” is met in relation to a club if—
the IFR is satisfied that the club—
is operating a relevant team,
meets the threshold requirements set out in Schedule 4 , and
complies and would continue to comply with the mandatory
licence conditions (see
section 20
) and
sections 45
to
53
(duties
on clubs), and
the IFR has not determined, and is not treated as having determined,
under
Part 4
that any person who is an owner or officer of the club
is not suitable to be an owner or officer of the club.
If the IFR considers that the full licence test is not met in relation to the club,
the IFR must give the club a notice—
stating that it proposes to—
refuse to grant the full operating licence, and
take action under subsection (6) (b) or section 19 ,
explaining why it proposes to take such action,
inviting the club to make representations about the proposed action,
and
specifying the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period specified by virtue of
subsection (4)
(d)
must be a period of not
less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice under
subsection
(4)
is given.
Subject to section 19 , after complying with subsection (4) the IFR must—
where the IFR considers that the full licence test is met in relation to
the club, grant the club a full operating licence and notify the club of
the grant, or
where the IFR considers that the full licence test would be met in
relation to the club within a reasonable period if more time is given
for the test to be met, specify a further period for which the club’s
provisional operating licence is to have effect.
A further period specified by virtue of
subsection (6)
(b)
must be such period
as the IFR considers sufficient to enable the full licence test to be met in
relation to the club.
The IFR may not grant a club a full operating licence under this section other
than where it considers that the full licence test is met in relation to the club.
Where the IFR grants a club a full operating licence under this section the
IFR must specify in the notice under
subsection (2)
(b)
or
(6)
(a)
(as the case
may be) the day on which the licence comes into force, at which time the
club’s provisional operating licence ceases to have effect.
The IFR may revoke a club’s provisional operating licence if—
the full licence test (as defined in
section 18
(3)
) is not met in relation
to the club, and
the IFR considers that—
the club has persistently and without reasonable excuse failed
to take such steps as are reasonable for that test to be met in
relation to the club, and
there is no reasonable prospect of the test being met in relation
to the club within a reasonable period even if the club were
given more time for the test to be met.
For the purposes of
subsection (1)
(b)
(i)
, a club’s failure is persistent if the
failure has occurred on a sufficient number of occasions for it to be clear that
it represents a pattern of behaviour or practice.
Where the IFR revokes a club’s provisional operating licence under
subsection
(1)
the IFR must give the club a notice—
stating that it is revoking the club’s provisional operating licence from
a date specified in the notice, and
explaining why it is revoking the club’s licence.
Where a notice under
subsection (3)
is given during a football season, the
date specified for the purposes of
subsection (3)
(a)
may not be a date before
the end of that season.
See
paragraphs 8
and
9
of
Schedule 9
for further provision about the
circumstances in which the IFR can revoke a club’s operating licence.
An operating licence ceases to have effect if the club holding the licence ceases
to operate a relevant team.
sets out the licence conditions (referred to in this Act as the “mandatory
licence conditions”) that the IFR must attach to each club’s operating
licence, and
makes provision about those conditions.
The IFR may attach licence conditions other than mandatory licence conditions
to a club’s operating licence.
A condition attached under
subsection (1)
is referred to in this Act as a
“discretionary licence condition”.
The IFR may attach a discretionary licence condition to an operating licence
only if the IFR is satisfied that compliance with the condition would—
in the case of a provisional operating licence, ensure that the club will
meet, or contribute towards the club meeting, the threshold
requirements set out in
Schedule 4
before the end of the period for
which the provisional operating licence has effect;
in the case of a full operating licence—
ensure that the club will meet, or will continue to meet, or
contribute towards the club meeting, or continuing to meet,
the threshold requirements;
in the case of a provisional or full operating licence, advance the IFR’s
systemic financial resilience objective.
The IFR may vary a discretionary licence condition where—
either—
the IFR considers that the condition is no longer effective, or
there has been a material change in circumstances affecting the
club since the condition was attached to the operating licence
or previously varied, and
the condition as varied meets a requirement in subsection (3) .
Subsections (3) and (4) are subject to sections 22 to 25 .
The IFR must—
remove a discretionary licence condition where the IFR considers that
the condition is no longer necessary, and
notify the club concerned about the removal.
A club may apply to the IFR for the variation or removal of a discretionary
licence condition.
An application under
subsection (7)
must explain why the variation or removal
is sought.
Where a discretionary licence condition is attached to an operating licence,
varied or removed, the IFR must specify in the licence the time from which
the attached condition, variation or removal has effect.
A discretionary licence condition relating to the financial resources threshold
requirement (see
paragraph 2
of
Schedule 4
) may only—
relate to debt management,
relate to liquidity requirements,
restrict the club’s overall expenditure, or
restrict the club’s ability to accept or receive funding which the IFR
reasonably suspects to be connected to serious criminal conduct.
A discretionary licence condition relating to the non-financial resources
threshold requirement (see
paragraph 3
of
Schedule 4
) may only relate to—
internal controls,
risk management, or
financial reporting.
A discretionary licence condition relating to the advancement of the IFR’s
systemic financial resilience objective may only—
relate to debt management,
relate to liquidity requirements, or
restrict the club’s overall expenditure.
A discretionary licence condition attached in reliance on
subsection (1)
(c)
or
(3)
(c)
may not impose restrictions on expenditure of a particular kind or a
particular transaction.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend
subsection (1)
,
(2)
or
(3)
to
add, vary or remove an item.
The Secretary of State may make regulations under
subsection (5)
only if
requested in writing to do so by the IFR.
A request under
subsection (6)
must explain why the IFR considers that the
making of regulations under
this section
is compatible with the purpose of
this Act.
Before submitting a request under
subsection (6)
, the IFR must consult such
persons as the IFR considers appropriate.
This section applies to a discretionary licence condition relating to—
the financial resources threshold requirement, or
the advancement of the IFR’s systemic financial resilience objective.
Before attaching or varying a discretionary licence condition to which this
section applies, the IFR must give a notice about the proposed condition or
variation to—
the club, and
the specified competition organiser which organises a specified
competition in relation to which a relevant team is operated by the
club.
The notice must—
give details of the proposed condition or variation,
explain why the IFR is proposing to attach the condition or make the
variation,
invite—
the club and the specified competition organiser to make
representations about the proposed condition or variation, and
the specified competition organiser to give a commitment to
take action in lieu of the proposed condition or variation, and
specify the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made or such a commitment must be given.
The period specified in the notice for making representations or giving a
commitment must be a period of not less than 14 days beginning with the
day on which the notice is given.
The IFR must—
have regard to any representations which are duly made, and
where the specified competition organiser gives a commitment
mentioned in
subsection (3)
(c)
(ii)
within the period specified in the
notice, consider whether to accept that commitment.
This section does not apply where—
a club applies for a variation under section 21 (7) , or
the IFR considers that compliance with this section would jeopardise,
or risk jeopardising, the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its
objectives.
This section
applies where a specified competition organiser gives a
commitment mentioned in
section 23
(3)
(c)
(ii)
(commitment to take action in
lieu of the proposed condition or variation).
The IFR may accept the commitment if it considers that—
compliance with the commitment by the specified competition organiser
would mean that it would not be necessary to attach the proposed
discretionary licence condition or make the proposed variation, and
accepting the commitment would not jeopardise, or risk jeopardising,
the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its objectives.
Where the IFR accepts a commitment under this section—
the IFR may not attach the proposed discretionary licence condition
or make the proposed variation while the commitment is in force, and
the specified competition organiser that gave the commitment must
comply with it while it has effect.
Where the IFR does not accept the commitment under this section, the IFR—
must notify the specified competition organiser and the club concerned
and provide reasons for its decision, and
may without further notice attach the proposed discretionary licence
condition or make the proposed variation.
The IFR may, from time to time, accept from a specified competition organiser
a variation to a commitment accepted under this section, provided that the
IFR considers that the commitment as varied would still meet the requirements
in
subsection (2)
.
The IFR may release a specified competition organiser from a commitment
accepted under this section where it considers that—
the commitment is no longer necessary,
the commitment is no longer effective, or
the specified competition organiser has failed to comply with the
commitment.
Where, under
subsection (6)
(b)
or
(c)
, the IFR releases a specified competition
organiser from a commitment accepted under this section, the IFR may—
without further notice attach the proposed discretionary licence
condition or make the proposed variation, or
attach an alternative discretionary licence condition or make an
alternative variation to a discretionary licence condition.
Before attaching an alternative discretionary licence condition or making an
alternative variation by virtue of
subsection (7)
(b)
, the IFR must give the club
a notice that—
notifies the club about the proposed alternative condition or variation,
invites the club to make representations about the proposed alternative
condition or variation, and
specifies the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period
of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
A commitment accepted by the IFR under this section—
comes into force on the day specified in the notice given to the
specified competition organiser under
paragraph 3
of
Schedule 6
, and
ceases to have effect if the specified competition organiser is released
from the commitment under
subsection (6)
.
The fact that a commitment accepted under this section ceases to have effect
does not affect the exercise of any functions in relation to a failure, or possible
failure, to comply with the commitment.
The IFR must keep under review—
the extent to which a specified competition organiser which gave a
commitment accepted under this section is complying with it,
whether a specified competition organiser should be released from a
commitment under this section (including whether to release a specified
competition organiser from a commitment and attach or vary a
discretionary licence condition to an operating licence instead), and
whether to take action in accordance with
Part 8
in respect of a
specified competition organiser which fails to comply with a
commitment.
Schedule 6
makes further provision about commitments mentioned in
section
23
(3)
(c)
(ii)
.
This section applies to a discretionary licence condition relating to—
the non-financial resources threshold requirement (see paragraph 3 of Schedule 4 ), or
the fan engagement threshold requirement (see
paragraph 4
of
Schedule
4
).
Before attaching or varying a discretionary licence condition to which this
section applies, the IFR must give the club a notice that—
notifies the club about the proposed condition or variation (including
the threshold requirement to which the condition or variation relates),
invites the club to make representations about the proposed condition
or variation, and
specifies the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period
of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given
to the club.
This section does not apply where—
a club applies for a variation under section 21 (7) , or
the IFR considers that compliance with this section would jeopardise,
or risk jeopardising, the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its
objectives.
This Part makes provision—
requiring notices to be given to the IFR before a person becomes an
owner or officer of a regulated club, or where there is a change of
circumstances relating to a person’s role as an owner or officer of a
regulated club,
for the making of determinations by the IFR about the suitability of
a person to be an owner or officer of a regulated club, and
for action that may or must be taken by the IFR where it determines
or is treated as having determined that a person is not suitable to be
an owner or officer of a regulated club.
deal with notifications by incumbent owners and officers, and
confer a power on the IFR to make determinations relating to the
suitability of incumbent owners and officers to continue in their role.
Section
37
contains provision about matters to which the IFR must have regard
in making determinations under this Part.
Sections
38
to
44
make provision about the action that the IFR may or must
take where it determines, or is treated as having determined, that a person
is not suitable to be an owner or officer of a regulated club, which may
include—
making an order disqualifying the person from being an owner or
officer of a club;
giving a direction requiring the person to cease to be an owner or
officer of a club;
making an order removing the person as an owner of a club.
An individual meets the “individual ownership fitness criteria” if the
individual—
has the requisite honesty and integrity, and
is financially sound.
An individual meets the “officer fitness criteria” if the individual—
has the requisite honesty and integrity,
has the requisite competence, and
is financially sound.
A person who—
is not an owner of a particular regulated club, but
considers that there is a reasonable prospect of the person becoming
an owner of that club,
must notify the IFR of that fact.
An individual who—
is not an officer of a particular regulated club, but
considers that there is a reasonable prospect of the individual becoming
an officer of that club,
must notify the IFR of that fact.
A regulated club must notify the IFR where it considers there is a reasonable
prospect of—
a person becoming an owner of the club, or
an individual becoming an officer of the club.
In this section—
references to a prospective owner are to a person who is the subject
of a notification under
subsection (1)
or
(3)
(a)
;
references to a prospective officer are to an individual who is the
subject of a notification under
subsection (2)
or
(3)
(b)
.
A notification under this section must—
identify the prospective owner or officer,
explain why the person giving the notification considers there is a
reasonable prospect of the prospective owner becoming an owner of
the club or (as the case may be) of the prospective officer becoming
an officer of the club, and
in relation to a prospective officer, state—
their proposed job title or a description of the job proposed to
be performed by them, and
any senior management functions to be carried out by them.
A notification under subsection (1) , (2) or (3) must be given—
as soon as reasonably practicable after the duty under that subsection
arises, and
before the prospective owner or officer becomes an owner or officer
of the club.
Where a notification under this section is not given by the time mentioned
in
subsection (6)
(b)
, the person or individual who, or club which, should have
given the notification must notify the IFR of the fact that (as the case may
be)—
the person has become an owner of the club, or
the individual has become an officer of the club,
and must do so as soon as reasonably practicable after becoming aware of that fact.
A person may not become an owner of a particular regulated club unless, on
an application by the person to the IFR, the IFR determines that the person
is suitable to be an owner of the club (an “affirmative determination”).
An application under
subsection (1)
must be made in accordance with rules
made by the IFR, which—
must require information about the following matters to be provided
with an application—
the proposed operation of the club;
the estimated costs of that operation;
how those costs are to be funded;
the source of such funding;
may require information about other matters specified in the rules to
be provided with an application;
may make provision about the manner and form in which an
application is to be made.
Where an application is duly made under
subsection (1)
by a registered
society, the IFR must make an affirmative determination in respect of the
applicant if the IFR considers that the applicant has sufficient financial
resources.
Where an application is duly made under
subsection (1)
by an individual,
the IFR must make an affirmative determination in respect of the applicant
if—
the IFR considers that the applicant—
meets the individual ownership fitness criteria, and
has sufficient financial resources, and
the IFR does not have grounds to suspect that the applicant has any
source of wealth which is connected to serious criminal conduct.
Subsections (3) and (4) are subject to subsection (6) (b) .
The IFR—
must not make an affirmative determination in respect of the applicant
if an order under
section 38
(1)
(disqualification from ownership) has
effect in relation to the applicant.
If the IFR is not able to make an affirmative determination in respect of the
applicant, it must determine that the applicant is not suitable to be an owner
of the club.
Where the IFR makes an affirmative determination in relation to a person,
the determination has effect until—
the person ceases to be an owner of the club, or
if earlier, the IFR gives the person a notice under
section 34
(10)
(b)
in
relation to the person’s suitability to be an owner of the club.
Where the IFR makes a determination under this section, the IFR must—
give notice of the determination to the applicant and to the club, and
publish the determination.
An individual may not become an officer of a particular regulated club unless,
on an application by the individual to the IFR, the IFR determines that the
individual is suitable to be an officer of the club (an “affirmative
determination”).
An application under
subsection (1)
must be made in accordance with rules
made by the IFR, which may in particular include provision about—
the information to be provided with an application, and
the manner and form in which an application must be made.
Where an application under
subsection (1)
is duly made, the IFR must make
an affirmative determination in respect of the applicant if the IFR considers
that the applicant meets the officer fitness criteria.
This is subject to subsection (4) (b) .
The IFR—
may not make an affirmative determination in respect of the applicant
except as mentioned in
subsection (3)
;
must not make an affirmative determination in respect of the applicant
if an order under
section 38
(2)
(disqualification from being an officer)
has effect in relation to the applicant.
If the IFR is not able to make an affirmative determination in respect of the
applicant, it must determine that the applicant is not suitable to be an officer
of the club.
Where the IFR makes an affirmative determination in relation to an individual,
the determination has effect until—
the individual ceases to be an officer of the club, or
if earlier, the IFR gives the individual a notice under section 35 (5) (b) in relation to the individual’s suitability to be an officer of the club.
Where the IFR makes a determination under this section, the IFR must—
give notice of the determination to the applicant and to the club, and
publish the determination.
Where the IFR becomes aware that a person has become an owner of a
particular regulated club without the IFR having first determined under
section 28
whether the person is suitable to be an owner of the club, the IFR
must give the person—
a notice requiring the person to make an application under section 28 by the date specified in the notice, or
a notice stating that the person is not suitable to be an owner of the
club.
But if the person is subject to an order under
section 38
(1)
(disqualification
from ownership)—
subsection (1) does not apply, and
the IFR must give the person a notice stating that the person is not
suitable to be an owner of the club.
Where the IFR becomes aware that an individual has become an officer of a
particular regulated club without the IFR having first determined under
section 29
whether the individual is suitable to be an officer of the club, the
IFR must give the individual—
a notice requiring the individual to make an application under
section
29
by the date specified in the notice, or
a notice stating that the individual is not suitable to be an officer of
the club.
But if the individual is subject to an order under
section 38
(2)
(disqualification
from being an officer)—
subsection (3) does not apply, and
the IFR must give the person a notice stating that the individual is
not suitable to be an officer of the club.
Where the IFR has given a notice under
subsection (1)
(a)
or
(3)
(a)
(“the initial
notice”) to a person, the IFR may give the person a notice under
this subsection
(a “further notice”) stating that the initial notice is to be treated as if the date
specified in it were a later date specified in the further notice.
The power conferred by subsection (5) may be exercised more than once.
Where a person to whom a notice under
subsection (1)
(a)
or
(3)
(a)
was given
fails to make the application required by the notice by the date specified (or
treated as specified) in the notice, the IFR must—
in a
subsection (1)
(a)
case, give the person a notice stating that the
person is not suitable to be an owner of the club;
in a
subsection (3)
(a)
case, give the individual a notice stating that the
individual is not suitable to be an officer of the club.
Where—
a notice under
subsection (1)
(b)
,
(2)
(b)
or
(7)
(a)
is given to a person,
the IFR is to be treated as having determined under
section 28
that
the person is not suitable to be an owner of the club in question;
a notice under
subsection (3)
(b)
,
(4)
(b)
or
(7)
(b)
is given to a person,
the IFR is to be treated as having determined under
section 29
that
the person is not suitable to be an officer of the club in question.
Where the IFR gives a notice under
this section
to a person, it must give a
copy of the notice to the club in question.
The IFR must publish notice of any determination it is treated by virtue of subsection (8) as having made under section 28 or 29 .
If the IFR is minded to determine under
section 28
or
29
that a person is not
suitable to be an owner or officer of a particular regulated club, the IFR
must—
give notice of that fact to the person and to the club, and
have regard to any representations made by the person or the club in
accordance with the notice.
If the IFR is minded to give a notice under
section 30
(1)
(b)
or
(3)
(b)
to a
person, the IFR must—
give notice of that fact to the person and to the regulated club of which
the person is an owner or officer, and
have regard to any representations made by the person or the club in
accordance with the notice.
A notice under subsection (1) or (2) must—
explain why the IFR is minded to make the determination or (as the
case may be) to give the notice,
invite the person or the club to make representations about the
proposed determination or notice, and
specify the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made.
The period for making representations must be a period of not less than 7
days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
Where a person makes an application to the IFR under
section 28
or
29
, the
IFR must make a determination under that section in respect of the person
before the end of the determination period.
The determination period is—
the period specified in regulations made by the Secretary of State for
the purposes of this paragraph, or
in a case where the period mentioned in
paragraph (a)
is extended
(or further extended) under
subsection (3)
, the period as so extended.
If the IFR considers that it cannot make a determination under
section 28
or
29
before the end of the determination period, it may (before the end of that
period) give the person who made the application a notice extending the
determination period for the period specified in the notice.
The power under subsection
(3)
may be exercised more than once; but the
determination period may not be extended so that it exceeds the period
specified in regulations made by the Secretary of State for the purposes of
this subsection
.
If the IFR does not make a determination under
section 28
or
29
in respect
of a person before the end of the determination period, the IFR is to be treated
on the expiry of that period as having determined under that section that the
person is not suitable to be an owner or officer of the club (as the case may
be).
Before making regulations under this section, the Secretary of State must
consult such persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
An individual who is an owner or officer of a regulated club must notify the
IFR where the individual considers there has been, or may have been, a
material change in circumstances which is relevant to whether the individual
is suitable to be an owner or officer of the club (as the case may be).
A regulated club must notify the IFR where it considers that there has been,
or may have been, a material change in circumstances which is relevant to
whether an individual who is an owner or officer of the club is suitable to
be an owner or officer of the club (as the case may be).
A notification under this section must—
identify the owner or officer in question,
explain the material change in circumstances, and
explain why the person giving the notification considers that the
change in circumstances is relevant to whether the owner or officer
in question is suitable to be an owner or officer of the club.
The IFR may determine whether an individual within
subsection (3)
meets
the individual ownership fitness criteria if the IFR is in possession of
information that gives it grounds for concern about whether the individual
meets those criteria.
The IFR may determine whether an individual within
subsection (3)
has a
source of wealth which is connected to serious criminal conduct if the IFR is
in possession of information that gives it grounds to suspect that the individual
does have such a source of wealth.
An individual is within this subsection if the individual is an owner of a
particular regulated club and either—
the individual has been an owner of the club since immediately
before—
the coming into force of this section, or
if later, the time when the club became a regulated club, or
a determination under
section 28
that the individual is suitable to be
an owner of the club has effect in relation to the individual.
Before making a determination under
subsection (1)
or
(2)
in relation to an
individual (“P”), the IFR must give notice to P and to the club of the fact that
it proposes to make such a determination.
Where the only determination being made by the IFR is a determination
under
subsection (1)
, if the IFR finds that P meets the individual ownership
fitness criteria—
the IFR must give notice of that finding to P and to the club, and
P may continue to be an owner of the club.
Where the only determination being made by the IFR is a determination
under
subsection (2)
, if the IFR finds that P does not have a source of wealth
which is connected to serious criminal conduct—
the IFR must give notice of that finding to P and to the club, and
P may continue to be an owner of the club.
The IFR may make the finding referred to in subsection (6) only if the IFR—
has taken reasonable steps to establish whether P has any source of
wealth which is connected to serious criminal conduct, and
is not satisfied, on the balance of probabilities, that P has any such
source of wealth.
Where determinations under both
subsections (1)
and
(2)
are being made by
the IFR, if the IFR finds as mentioned in subsections
(5)
and
(6)
—
the IFR must give notice of those findings to P and to the club, and
P may continue to be an owner of the club.
Subsection (10) applies if—
in a case within subsection
(5)
, the IFR does not make the finding
mentioned in that subsection,
in a case within
subsection (6)
, the IFR does not make the finding
mentioned in that subsection, or
in a case within
subsection (8)
, the IFR does not make both of the
findings mentioned in subsections
(5)
and
(6)
.
If this subsection applies—
the IFR is to be treated as having determined that P is not suitable to
be an owner of the club, and
the IFR must give notice of that fact to P and to the club.
The IFR must publish notice of—
any finding it makes under this section;
any determination it is treated as having made under this section.
The IFR may determine whether an individual within
subsection (2)
meets
the officer fitness criteria if the IFR is in possession of information that gives
it grounds for concern about whether the individual meets those criteria.
An individual is within this subsection if the individual is an officer of a
particular regulated club and either—
the individual has been an officer of the club since immediately
before—
the coming into force of this section, or
if later, the time when the club became a regulated club, or
a determination under
section 29
that the individual is suitable to be
an officer of the club has effect in relation to the individual.
Before determining under this section whether an individual (“P”) meets the
officer fitness criteria, the IFR must give notice to P and to the club of the
fact that it proposes to make such a determination.
If, on making a determination under this section, the IFR finds that P meets
the officer fitness criteria—
the IFR must give notice of that finding to P and to the club, and
P may continue to be an officer of the club.
If, on making a determination under this section, the IFR does not find that
P meets the officer fitness criteria—
the IFR is to be treated as having determined that P is not suitable to
be an officer of the club, and
the IFR must give notice of that fact to P and to the club.
The IFR must publish—
any finding it makes under this section;
notice of any determination it is treated as having made under this
section.
If the IFR is minded to make a negative finding under section
34
or
35
in
relation to an individual, the IFR must—
give notice of that fact to the individual and to the club, and
have regard to any representations made by the individual or the club
in accordance with the notice.
In this section, “negative finding” means—
in relation to a determination under
section 34
(1)
, a finding that the
individual does not meet the individual ownership fitness criteria;
in relation to a determination under
section 34
(2)
, a finding that the
individual does have a source of wealth which is connected to serious
criminal conduct;
in relation to a determination under
section 35
(1)
, a finding that the
individual does not meet the officer fitness criteria.
A notice under subsection (1) must—
explain why the IFR is minded to make the negative finding,
invite the individual or the club to make representations about the
proposed finding, and
specify the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made.
The period for making representations must be a period of not less than 14
days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
In making a determination under this Part in relation to a person, the IFR
must have regard to any determination which—
has been made by a competition organiser in relation to the person,
and
the IFR considers relevant to its determination.
In determining for the purposes of this Part whether it considers that an
individual has the requisite honesty and integrity, the IFR must have regard
to the following matters—
whether the individual has been convicted of a criminal offence or
subject to criminal proceedings, whether or not in England and Wales
(in particular where the offence is or proceedings are in respect of
serious criminal conduct);
whether, on the balance of probabilities, the individual has engaged
in conduct outside England and Wales which would, if done in
England and Wales, amount to the commission of a serious offence;
whether the individual is or has been a party to proceedings (other
than criminal proceedings) in any court or tribunal;
any action of a regulatory or disciplinary nature that is being or has
been taken in relation to the individual (whether or not by the IFR
and whether or not in England and Wales);
whether the individual is prohibited from entering the United
Kingdom;
whether the individual is a designated person as defined by section
9(2) of the Sanctions and Anti-Money Laundering Act 2018;
such other matters relating to honesty and integrity as may be specified
for the purposes of this paragraph in rules made by the IFR.
In determining for the purposes of this Part whether it considers that an
individual is financially sound, the IFR must have regard to the following
matters—
the individual’s financial arrangements, including in particular whether
the individual has—
become bankrupt (in relation to England and Wales and
Northern Ireland) or made an arrangement with creditors,
had their estate sequestrated (in relation to Scotland), or
been subject to any similar procedure (whether or not in the
United Kingdom);
the financial situation of any body in relation to which the individual
holds, or has held, a position of responsibility (whether or not as an
officer of the body);
such other matters relating to financial soundness as may be specified
for the purposes of this paragraph in rules made by the IFR.
In determining for the purposes of this Part whether it considers that an
individual has the requisite competence, the IFR must have regard to the
individual’s qualifications, experience and training.
In making a determination referred to in subsection
(2)
,
(3)
or
(4)
, the IFR
may not have regard to any matter which is not referred to in that subsection
(subject to
subsection (1)
).
In this section, “serious offence” means an offence specified, or falling within
a description specified, in Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Serious Crime Act 2007.
The IFR may make an order disqualifying a person from being an owner of
any regulated club if under any provision of this Part the IFR determines, or
is treated as having determined, that the person is not suitable to be an owner
of a particular regulated club.
The IFR may make an order disqualifying a person from being an officer of
any regulated club if under any provision of this Part the IFR determines, or
is treated as having determined, that the person is not suitable to be an officer
of a particular regulated club.
Before making an order made under subsection
(1)
or
(2)
, the IFR must give
a notice to the person to whom the order would relate, and to the particular
club referred to in that subsection—
giving details of the fact that the IFR proposes to make the order,
stating the reasons for the proposed order,
inviting the person and the club to make representations about the
proposed order, and
specifying the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations may be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period for making representations must be a period of not less than 14
days beginning with the day on which the notice under
subsection (3)
is
given.
As soon as reasonably practicable after the period for making representations
has ended, the IFR must—
publish a notice of its decision, giving reasons for it.
This section
applies in relation to a person (“P”) who is an owner of a
particular regulated club where—
the IFR has determined under
section 28
, or is treated as having
determined under
that section
, that P is not suitable to be an owner
of the club, or
the IFR is treated by virtue of
section 34
(10)
(a)
as having determined
that P is not suitable to be an owner of the club,
and “deemed determination” in this section means a determination that the IFR is treated as having made as mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b) .
The IFR must give P a direction requiring P to take all reasonable steps to
cease to be an owner of the club before the end of the removal period.
This is subject to subsection (7) .
The removal period is—
the period specified in the direction, or
where the period mentioned in
paragraph (a)
is extended (or further
extended) under
subsection (4)
, that period as so extended.
A direction given under
this section
in relation to P (“the first direction”) may
be varied by a further direction so as to extend (or further extend) the period
specified in the first direction.
Before giving a direction under this section , the IFR must consult—
P,
the club, and
the specified competition organiser which organises a specified
competition in relation to which a relevant team is operated by the
club.
Subsection (2)
does not apply in a case within
subsection (1)
(a)
if, before the
end of the period of 3 months beginning with the applicable day, the IFR
exercises its power to make an order under
section 43
in relation to P
(ownership removal order).
For the purposes of
subsection (7)
, the applicable day is (subject to
subsections
(9)
and
(10)
) the day on which the IFR publishes—
its determination under section 28 in relation to P, or
notice of its deemed determination under
that section
in relation to
P,
as the case may be.
Where the determination or deemed determination is subject to a review
requested under
section 82
, the applicable day is the day on which the IFR
publishes—
the applicable reviewer’s decision under section 83 (3) , or
the decision that the applicable reviewer is treated as having made
under
section 82
(5)
or
83
(6)
,
unless the determination or deemed determination is then subject to an appeal under section 84 .
Where the determination or deemed determination is subject to an appeal
under
section 84
(whether or not it has been subject to a review requested
under
section 82
), the applicable day is the day on which the appeal is finally
determined.
This section applies in relation to an individual (“P”) who is an officer of a
particular regulated club where—
the IFR has determined under
section 29
, or is treated as having
determined under that section, that P is not suitable to be an officer
of the club, or
the IFR is treated by virtue of
section 35
(5)
(a)
as having determined
that P is not suitable to be an officer of the club.
The IFR must give either or both of the following—
a direction to P requiring P to take all reasonable steps to cease to be
an officer of the club before the end of the removal period;
a direction to the club requiring the club to take all reasonable steps
to secure that P ceases to be an officer of the club before the end of
the removal period.
The removal period, in the case of a direction under this section, is—
the period specified in the direction, or
where the period mentioned in
paragraph (a)
is extended under
subsection (4)
, that period as extended (or further extended) under
that subsection.
A direction given under this section in relation to P (“the first direction”) may
be varied by a further direction so as to extend (or further extend) the period
specified in the first direction.
Before giving a direction under this section , the IFR must consult—
P,
the club, and
the specified competition organiser which organises a specified
competition in relation to which a relevant team is operated by the
club.
At the same time as giving a direction under this section, the IFR must—
in the case of a direction under
subsection (2)
(a)
, give a notice to P
and to the club, and
in the case of a direction under
subsection (2)
(b)
, give a notice to the
club,
including information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of not complying with the direction.
This section applies where, under any provision of this Part, the IFR
determines or is treated as having determined—
that a person who is an owner of a regulated club is not suitable to
be an owner of the club, or
that a person who is an officer of a regulated club is not suitable to
be an officer of the club.
The IFR may give one or both of the following—
a direction to the person prohibiting the person (wholly or to an extent
specified in the direction) from carrying out such of the person’s
activities, or exercising such of their rights, as an owner or officer as
are specified or described in the direction;
a direction to the club requiring it to secure that the person does not
(wholly or to an extent specified in the direction) carry out such of
those activities, or exercise such of those rights, as are specified or
described in the direction.
A direction under this section may, among other things, contain provision
prohibiting or (in the case of a direction under
subsection (2)
(b)
) provision
aimed at prohibiting the person to whom it relates from—
exercising any right, whether or not by virtue of the holding of shares,
stock or securities, to vote on any matter relating to the carrying on
of the club’s activities;
appointing, terminating the appointment of, changing the terms of
appointment or the responsibilities of, any officer or employee of the
club;
making changes to the corporate structure of the club;
doing anything specified or described in the direction without obtaining
the prior approval of the IFR.
A direction under this section—
comes into force at the time specified by or determined in accordance
with the direction;
has effect for the period specified in the direction;
may be varied or revoked by a further direction.
At the same time as giving a direction under this section, the IFR must—
in the case of a direction under
subsection (2)
(a)
, give a notice to the
person and to the club of which the person is an owner or officer
including information about the possible consequences under this Part
and
Part 8
of not complying with the direction;
in the case of a direction under
subsection (2)
(b)
, give a notice to the
club including information about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of not complying with the direction.
This section applies where—
a direction under
section 41
has effect in relation to a person or club,
and
the IFR considers that the ability of the club to operate effectively, or
to comply with conditions attached to its operating licence, is or is
likely to be adversely affected by compliance with the direction.
The IFR may do either or both of the following if it considers that doing so
would mitigate or avoid the effect mentioned in subsection
(1)
(b)
—
make an order appointing an individual identified in the order as an
officer of the club for a period specified in the order;
give the club a direction requiring it to redistribute amongst its existing
officers functions specified or described in the direction (whether of
the person concerned or otherwise).
An order under subsection (2) (a) —
must specify or describe the functions to be exercised by the individual
appointed by the order;
comes into force at the time specified by or determined in accordance
with the order;
may be varied or revoked by a further order.
A direction under subsection (2) (b) —
comes into force at the time specified by or determined in accordance
with the direction;
has effect for the period specified in the direction;
may be varied or revoked by a further direction.
The IFR may make rules providing for—
costs incurred by it in connection with the appointment of an
individual by virtue of an order under
subsection (2)
(a)
, and
costs incurred by an individual appointed by virtue of such an order,
to be payable by the club to which the individual is appointed.
Where an individual is appointed by virtue of an order under
subsection
(2)
(a)
, the club, each owner of the club and each officer of the club must—
co-operate with the individual, and
give the individual such reasonable assistance as the individual
requests (including access to business premises, equipment, services,
information and individuals),
in connection with the exercise of the individual’s functions under the order.
At the same time as making an order under this section, the IFR must give
a notice to the club, and to each owner and officer of the club, including
information about the possible consequences under—
this Part (where the direction under
section 41
relates to a person who
is an owner of the club), and
Part 8 ,
of not complying with the duty imposed by subsection (6) .
At the same time as giving a direction under this section, the IFR must give
the club a notice about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of not
complying with the direction.
References in this Act to an officer of a club do not include references to an
individual appointed as an officer of the club by virtue of an order under
subsection (2)
(a)
.
The IFR may make an order containing such provision as the IFR considers
appropriate to secure that, by the end of the period specified in the order, a
person who is an owner of a regulated club (“P”) has ceased to be an owner
of the club.
But the power to make an order under
subsection (1)
is exercisable only
where—
the IFR has determined under
section 28
, or is treated as having
determined under that section, that P is not suitable to be an owner
of the club,
P fails without reasonable excuse to comply with a direction given to
P under
section 39
,
P fails without reasonable excuse to comply with a direction given to
P under section
41
, or
a direction under section 41 has effect in relation to P and P—
fails to co-operate with or assist an individual appointed by
an order under
section 42
in connection with the exercise of
the individual’s functions under the order, or
otherwise obstructs such an individual from carrying out those
functions,
and P does not have a reasonable excuse for the failure or obstruction.
An order under this section may, among other things, include provision—
for the appointment of trustees;
conferring functions on trustees appointed by virtue of the order
(including functions of taking action on behalf of P or any other
person);
requiring P or any other person to take action (including action directed
by trustees appointed by virtue of the order).
The provision that may be made by virtue of
subsection (3)
(b)
includes
provision authorising trustees appointed by virtue of the order to take any
steps they consider appropriate to achieve the purpose for which the order
is made.
A trustee appointed by virtue of an order under this section—
must not have a conflict of interest, and
must have the necessary skills to discharge their functions under the
order.
Where a trustee is appointed by virtue of an order under this section, the
club, each owner of the club and each officer of the club must—
co-operate with the trustee, and
give the trustee such reasonable assistance as the trustee requests
(including access to business premises, equipment, services, information
and individuals),
in connection with the exercise of the trustee’s functions under the order.
A trustee appointed by virtue of an order under this section must—
provide the IFR with regular reports on the exercise of their functions
under the order and on any co-operation or assistance provided by P
or the club;
obtain the IFR’s approval before making any contractual or other
arrangements that would result in P ceasing to be an owner of the
club.
The IFR may withhold approval for arrangements described in
subsection
(7)
(b)
if—
the IFR considers that the arrangements would result in any person
becoming an owner of the club without the IFR having first determined
under
section 28
that the person is suitable to be an owner of the club,
or
where the arrangements would involve the disposal of an interest in
the club, the IFR considers that any party to the proposed disposal is
acting in bad faith.
Before making an order under section 43 , the IFR must publish a notice—
stating—
that the IFR proposes to make the order, and
the reasons for doing so,
summarising the provision the IFR proposes to include in the proposed
order,
inviting the making of representations about the proposed order, and
specifying the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations may be made,
and must have regard to any representations which are duly made.
The period for making representations must be a period of not less than 14
days beginning with the day on which the notice under
subsection (1)
is
published.
As soon as reasonably practicable after the period for making representations
has ended, the IFR must—
decide whether to make an order under section 43 , and
publish a notice of its decision, giving reasons for it.
At the same time as making an order under section 43 , the IFR must—
where the order imposes requirements on P (within the meaning of
section 43
), give a notice to P and to the club including information
about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of not complying with
those requirements;
where the order imposes requirements on the club, give a notice to
the club including information about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of not complying with those requirements;
give a notice to the club, and to each owner and officer of the club,
including information about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of not complying with the duty imposed by
subsection (6)
of
section
43
.
An order under section 43 —
comes into force at the time specified by or determined in accordance
with the order,
has effect for the period specified by or determined in accordance with
the order, and
may be varied or revoked by a further order.
The IFR may make rules providing for—
costs incurred by the IFR in exercising functions under section 43 or this section , and
costs incurred by a trustee appointed by virtue of such an order,
to be payable by P (within the meaning of section 43 ).
A club to which
subsection (2)
applies must not operate a team in relation to
a prohibited competition.
This subsection applies to—
a regulated club, or
a club that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated club at
any point within the previous 10 years.
In calculating the period of 10 years mentioned in
subsection (2)
(b)
, no account
is to be taken of any time before the coming into force of
this section
.
A “prohibited competition” is a competition specified as a prohibited
competition for the purposes of this section in rules made by the IFR.
In considering whether to specify a competition as a prohibited competition,
the IFR must have regard to—
whether the competition—
is, or would be, merit-based,
operates, or would operate, on the basis of fair and open
competition,
jeopardises, or would jeopardise, the sustainability of relevant
competitions,
jeopardises, or would jeopardise, the sustainability of clubs
operating teams in relation to relevant competitions, and
harms, or would harm, the heritage of English football, and
any other factors that the IFR specifies in rules.
Before specifying a competition as a prohibited competition, the IFR must
give the competition organiser a notice—
stating that it proposes to specify the competition as a prohibited
competition,
explaining why it proposes to take such action,
inviting the competition organiser to make representations about the
proposed action, and
specifying the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations may be made,
and must have regard to any representations duly made.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period
of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
Before specifying a competition as a prohibited competition, the IFR must—
take reasonable steps to determine the views of fans in England and
Wales of regulated clubs about the competition being specified as a
prohibited competition, and
have regard to those views.
Before specifying a competition as a prohibited competition, the IFR must
consult—
the Football Association, and
such other persons as the IFR considers appropriate.
The IFR may specify a competition as a prohibited competition—
whether or not any of the matches included in that competition are
played, or are to be played, in England or Wales or in any other part
of the United Kingdom;
whether or not the teams that are entered into it, or that are members
of it, or that participate in it are, or are to be, exclusively or
predominantly English teams.
For the purposes of this section—
“
relevant competition” means any competition (other than a prohibited
competition) where the teams that are entered into it, or that are
members of it, or that participate in it are exclusively or predominantly
English teams.
A body to which
subsection (2)
applies must notify the IFR where the body
considers that there is a reasonable prospect of the body—
disposing of any freehold or leasehold interest that the body holds in
its home ground or any part of the home ground, or
using any interest that the body holds in its home ground, or any part
of the home ground, as security in respect of a loan or other liability.
This subsection applies to—
a body that is a regulated club, or
a body that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated club at
any point within the previous 5 years (a “formerly regulated club”).
In calculating the period of 5 years mentioned in
subsection (2)
(b)
, no account
is to be taken of any time before the coming into force of
this section
.
A notification under
subsection (1)
must be given as soon as reasonably
practicable after the body considers the duty under that subsection to have
arisen.
A body to which
subsection (2)
applies must obtain the approval of the IFR
before it carries on an activity mentioned in
subsection (1)
.
The IFR must grant approval for the taking of any step mentioned in
subsection
(1)
if—
where the body is a regulated club, it is satisfied that the taking of
the step would not undermine the financial sustainability of the club;
where the body is a formerly regulated club, it is satisfied that the
body has taken all reasonable steps to ensure that a team customarily
plays its home matches at the ground.
The IFR may not grant approval in any other circumstances.
The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the body has sought
approval, decide whether to grant approval under
subsection (6)
.
The IFR must notify the body of its decision to grant, or not to grant, that
approval and give reasons for its decision.
In this section , “home ground”—
in relation to a body that is a regulated club, means the ground at
which a relevant team operated by it customarily plays its home
matches;
in relation to a body that is a formerly regulated club, means the
ground at which a relevant team operated by it immediately before
it ceased to be a regulated club customarily played its home matches.
A body to which
section 46
(2)
applies must notify the IFR as soon as
reasonably practicable after the body considers that there is a reasonable
prospect of an administrator of the body being appointed under paragraph
22 of Schedule B1 to the Insolvency Act 1986 (“the 1986 Act”) (including that
paragraph as applied in relation to partnerships by an order under section
420 of that Act).
An administrator of a body to which
section 46
(2)
applies may not be
appointed as mentioned in
subsection (1)
without the approval of the IFR.
Approval under subsection (2) —
must be in writing, and
must accompany the notice of intention to appoint filed under
paragraph 27 of Schedule B1 to the 1986 Act.
But in a case where the notice of intention to appoint mentioned in
subsection
(3)
(b)
is not required—
subsection (3) (b) does not apply, but
approval under
subsection (2)
must accompany the notice of
appointment filed under paragraph 29 of Schedule B1 to the 1986 Act.
A regulated club must notify the IFR where the club considers that there is
a reasonable prospect of the club entering into arrangements whereby a
relevant team operated by it would play its home matches at a ground other
than the club’s home ground.
A notification under
subsection (1)
must be given as soon as reasonably
practicable after the club considers the duty under
that subsection
to have
arisen.
The club must obtain the approval of the IFR before it enters into the
arrangements mentioned in
subsection (1)
.
The IFR must grant approval for the club entering into those arrangements
if it is satisfied that —
the arrangements would not undermine the financial sustainability of
the club,
the arrangements would not cause significant harm to the heritage of
the club,
the club has taken reasonable steps to determine the views of its fans
about the effect of the arrangements on the relevant matters set out
in
paragraph 4
(2)
of
Schedule 4
, and
the club has had regard to those views in considering whether to enter
into the arrangements.
The IFR may not grant approval in any other circumstances.
The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the club has sought
approval, decide whether to grant approval under
subsection (4)
.
The IFR must notify the club of its decision to grant, or not to grant, that
approval and give reasons for its decision.
In
this section
“home ground”, in relation to a regulated club, has the meaning
given by
section 46
(10)
(a)
.
A regulated club must not make any material changes to the crest or
predominant home shirt colours of a relevant team operated by the club
unless the club has taken reasonable steps to establish that the changes are
supported by a majority of the club’s fans in England and Wales.
A regulated club must not change the name of a relevant team operated by
the club unless the change has been approved by the Football Association.
A regulated club must notify the IFR where the club considers that there has
been, or may have been, a material change in circumstances affecting the club
that is relevant to the exercise of the IFR’s functions under this Act.
A notification under
subsection (1)
must be given as soon as reasonably
practicable after the club considers that there has been, or may have been,
such a change of circumstances.
A club is not required to notify the IFR under this section of any material
change in circumstances that the club has notified to the IFR under or by
virtue of any other provision of this Act.
A regulated club that is in relevant insolvency proceedings must take
reasonable steps to keep its fans informed about the progress of the
proceedings.
“Relevant insolvency proceedings” has the meaning given by paragraph 13 (3) of Schedule 1 .
A licensed club must—
prepare a personnel statement (within the meaning of section 16 ), and
submit it to the IFR for approval.
A statement submitted to the IFR for approval must be accompanied by a
statement explaining why the club considers the statement to be accurate (but
this is subject to
subsection (8)
).
The IFR—
may approve the statement with or without modifications, and
may approve the statement only if satisfied that it is accurate.
Before approving the statement with modifications, the IFR must consult the
club.
The club must publish the approved statement online as soon as reasonably
practicable after the IFR approves the statement.
The first statement must be submitted to the IFR as soon as reasonably
practicable after the club becomes a licensed club, subject to
subsection (8)
.
A new statement must be submitted to the IFR as soon as reasonably
practicable after the most recent approved statement becomes inaccurate in
a material particular.
Where the first personnel statement submitted by a club to the IFR in
accordance with
subsection (6)
would be the same as the personnel statement
submitted by the club to the IFR under
section 16
, the club may require the
IFR to treat the statement submitted under that section as its first personnel
statement for the purposes of this section.
The IFR may require a club to pay to the IFR a levy in respect of a chargeable
period during which the club is a licensed club.
The amount of the levy is to be calculated in accordance with rules made by
the IFR (“levy rules”).
Levy rules must secure that the aggregate amount payable by virtue of this
section in respect of a chargeable period does not exceed the sum of—
the costs which the IFR estimates it will incur in exercising its leviable
functions during that period, which may include an amount in respect
of contingencies in relation to that period,
the amount of any financial reserves which the IFR considers it
appropriate to raise in that period for the purpose of meeting any
costs of exercising its leviable functions in future periods,
where the IFR’s actual costs incurred in exercising its leviable functions
in the previous chargeable period exceed the IFR’s estimate of those
costs, the amount by which the IFR’s actual costs in the previous
period exceeded the IFR’s estimate,
where the IFR’s estimate of the costs it would incur in exercising its
leviable functions in the previous chargeable period exceeds the IFR’s
actual costs incurred, the amount (expressed as a negative figure) by
which the IFR’s estimated costs in the previous period exceeded the
IFR’s actual costs, and
an amount in respect of any of the IFR’s initial costs, and any of the
Secretary of State’s establishment costs, that have not been recovered
before the beginning of the chargeable period.
The IFR’s “leviable functions” are its functions under this Act other than its
functions under—
section 42
(2)
(a)
(orders and directions effecting alternative officer
arrangements);
section 43 (ownership removal orders);
Part 6 (distribution of revenue);
section 66 (reports on clubs by expert reporters).
“The IFR’s initial costs” are the costs incurred by the IFR before the first
chargeable period—
in preparing for the exercise of any of its functions under this Act,
and
in exercising any of those functions.
“The Secretary of State’s establishment costs” are such costs as are—
incurred by the Secretary of State in relation to the establishment of
the IFR before the coming into force of
section 5
, and
notified by the Secretary of State to the IFR before the first chargeable
period.
Levy rules must make provision about—
how the IFR is to estimate the costs which it expects to incur in
exercising its leviable functions during a chargeable period;
how the IFR is to calculate the costs which it actually incurs in
exercising its leviable functions during a chargeable period;
how the IFR is to calculate an appropriate financial reserve to raise in
a chargeable period;
how the IFR is to calculate the IFR’s initial costs;
the number of chargeable periods over which the IFR’s initial costs
and the Secretary of State’s establishment costs will be recovered
(“recovery periods”);
the maximum percentage of the IFR’s initial costs and of the Secretary
of State’s establishment costs that may be recovered in each recovery
period;
how the aggregate amount payable in respect of a chargeable period
is to be divided between clubs that are licensed clubs during that
period;
the administration and payment of the levy.
Levy rules may make provision—
for a club that would otherwise be required to pay the levy to not be
required to pay it where conditions specified in levy rules are met;
for interest to be charged, at a rate specified in or calculated in
accordance with the rules, on any amount of levy not paid by the day
on which it is due.
In making the provision mentioned in
subsection (7)
(g)
the IFR must (among
other things) have regard to—
the financial resources of each licensed club, and
the specified competition in relation to which a relevant team is
operated by each licensed club.
An amount payable by a club in accordance with this section and levy rules
is recoverable as a civil debt due to the IFR.
For the purposes of this section and section 54 a “chargeable period” means—
the period of 12 months beginning with such day as may be specified
by the IFR by notice for the purposes of this subsection (which is the
first chargeable period), and
each subsequent period of 12 months.
Before making, amending or replacing levy rules the IFR must consult—
the Secretary of State,
the Treasury,
all regulated clubs, and
such other persons as the IFR considers appropriate.
Subsection (1)
does not apply in relation to amendments to or replacements
of levy rules if the IFR considers the changes to be minor.
The consultation must include a draft of the proposed levy rules.
As soon as reasonably practicable before the start of a chargeable period
(“period A”) the IFR must publish—
an estimate of the costs which it expects to incur in exercising its
leviable functions during period A;
the actual costs of exercising its leviable functions during the
chargeable period immediately before period A (unless period A is
the first chargeable period);
the amount of financial reserves which it considers it appropriate to
raise in period A (if any);
the amount to be recovered in period A in respect of the IFR’s initial
costs and the Secretary of State’s establishment costs (if any);
the amount of the IFR’s initial costs and the Secretary of State’s
establishment costs that it has not recovered before the start of period
A (if any);
the amount payable by each licensed club in respect of period A;
such information as it considers appropriate to explain how those
costs and amounts are determined.
Where the IFR by notice specifies a day for the purposes of
section 53
(11)
the
IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after specifying the day, publish
that notice.
In
this section
“the IFR’s initial costs” and “the Secretary of State’s
establishment costs” have the same meanings as in
section 53
.
A specified competition organiser must notify the IFR where—
the organiser considers that there is a risk of the IFR’s ability to
advance its club financial soundness objective or its systemic financial
resilience objective being jeopardised,
the organiser has failed to comply with a commitment accepted by
the IFR under
section 24
or the organiser considers that there is an
immediate risk of it failing to so comply, or
the organiser considers or suspects that a club has breached a relevant
rule of a specified competition.
A notice under subsection (1) must—
explain why the specified competition organiser considers the duty
under that subsection to have arisen, and
be given as soon as reasonably practicable after the specified
competition organiser considers the duty under that subsection to
have arisen.
A specified competition organiser must also notify the IFR before a penalty,
sanction or other requirement (whether financial or otherwise) is imposed,
whether by the organiser or another person, on a club that breaches or is
suspected to have breached a relevant rule of a specified competition.
Where a notice under
subsection (3)
is not given before a penalty, sanction
or other requirement is imposed, the specified competition organiser must
notify the IFR of the fact that a penalty, sanction or other requirement has
been imposed as soon as reasonably practicable after becoming aware of that
fact.
A notice under
subsection (3)
or
(4)
must explain why the penalty, sanction
or other requirement is being or has been imposed.
A specified competition organiser must consult the IFR before—
adding or removing a relevant rule of a specified competition, or
varying a relevant rule of a specified competition, unless the variation
is not material.
A consultation under subsection (6) must—
explain why the specified competition organiser is proposing to add,
remove or vary the relevant rule of a specified competition;
include a draft of the additional or varied rule.
In this section, “relevant rule of a specified competition” means a rule of the
specified competition organised by the specified competition organiser that
is relevant to the exercise of any of the IFR’s functions under this Act.
This Part
makes provision for a specified competition organiser to apply to
the IFR for the triggering of a process under which—
specified competition organisers are required to enter into mediation
in connection with the distribution of relevant revenue received by
one of the organisers, and
if those organisers do not reach agreement during that process, the
IFR may make an order as to the distribution of that revenue.
In
this Part
, “relevant revenue” means revenue received by a specified
competition organiser—
as a result of the sale or acquisition of rights to exploit the broadcasting
of football matches included in a competition organised by the specified
competition organiser, or
from any other source specified, or of a description specified, in
regulations made by the Secretary of State.
Before making regulations under
subsection (2)
(b)
, the Secretary of State must
consult—
the IFR,
the Football Association, and
each specified competition organiser.
The Secretary of State may not make regulations under
subsection (2)
(b)
unless
there has been a material change in circumstances relating to the sources of
relevant revenue received by a specified competition organiser since—
the day on which this section came into force, or
where regulations under
subsection (2)
(b)
have been made, the day
on which such regulations were last made.
For the purposes of this Part —
“
distribution agreement” means an agreement between two specified
competition organisers that provides for the distribution of relevant
revenue received by one or both of those organisers (and includes an
agreement entered into before the coming into force of any provision
of
this Part
);
“
distribution order” means an order under
section 62
(1)
or
(3)
;
“
qualifying football season”, in relation to an application under
section
57
, means—
either—
the football season during which the application is
made, or
where the application is not made during a football
season, the next football season after the application is
made, and
any subsequent football season up to and including the fifth
subsequent season;
“
the resolution process” means the process set out in
sections 60
to
62
.
For the purposes of
this Part
, a distribution agreement or a distribution order
relates to a qualifying football season if the agreement or order provides for
the distribution of relevant revenue in or in respect of that season.
In this Part references to “the question or questions for resolution” are to be
construed in accordance with
section 57
(1)
.
A specified competition organiser may apply to the IFR for the resolution
process to be triggered where—
one or more questions have arisen between that organiser and another
specified competition organiser, and
the question or questions relate to the distribution, in or in respect of
one or more qualifying football seasons, of relevant revenue received
by one of those organisers.
But a specified competition organiser may apply to the IFR under
subsection
(1)
only if one or more of the following conditions are met in relation to the
qualifying football season or seasons to which the application relates.
Condition 1 is met in relation to a qualifying football season if—
no distribution agreement is in force between the two specified
competition organisers in relation to the season, and
no distribution order has effect in respect of the two specified
competition organisers in relation to the season.
Condition 2 is met in relation to a qualifying football season if there has been,
or will be, a material reduction in the relevant revenue received by one
specified competition organiser in or in respect of that season compared to
the relevant revenue received by that specified competition organiser in or
in respect of any preceding season in relation to which (as the case may be)—
the last distribution agreement entered into between the two specified
competition organisers had effect, or
the last distribution order made in relation to those organisers had
effect.
Condition 3 is met in relation to a qualifying football season if, in relation to
the relevant revenue received or to be received by either or both of the
specified competition organisers in or in respect of that season, there has been
or will be a material change in circumstances since (as the case may be)—
the day on which the last distribution agreement was entered into
between those organisers, or
the day on which the last distribution order was made in relation to
those organisers.
Condition 4 is met in relation to a qualifying football season if—
a distribution agreement is in force between the two specified
competition organisers in relation to the season,
the distribution agreement has been in force for at least five years,
and
no distribution order has effect in respect of the specified competition
organisers in relation to the season.
Before making an application under
section 57
, a specified competition
organiser (“the notifier”) must—
notify the other specified competition organiser (“the respondent”)
that the notifier intends to make the application, and
send a copy of the notification to the IFR.
A notification under subsection (1) (a) must—
specify the qualifying football season or seasons to which the
application relates,
explain why the notifier considers that at least one of the conditions
in
section 57
is met in relation to that season or those seasons,
set out details of the question or questions for resolution,
invite the respondent to make representations about the content of
the notification, and
specify the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a period
of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice is given.
An application under
section 57
must not be made before the end of the
period of five days beginning with the last day on which representations may
be made.
An application under section 57 must—
specify the qualifying football season or seasons to which the
application relates,
explain why the notifier considers that at least one of the conditions
in
section 57
is met in relation to that season or those seasons,
set out details of the question or questions for resolution, and
be accompanied by copies of any representations made by the
respondent about the content of the notification under
subsection
(1)
(a)
.
Where an application is made under
section 57
, the IFR must decide whether
the resolution process should be triggered in relation to the qualifying football
season or seasons to which the application relates.
The IFR may decide that the resolution process should be triggered in relation
to a qualifying football season only if the IFR—
is satisfied that at least one of the conditions in
section 57
is met in
relation to that season, and
has reasonable grounds to suspect that its ability to advance at least
one of its objectives would be jeopardised if the resolution process
were not triggered.
In deciding whether the resolution process should be triggered, the IFR may
have regard to the purposes for which the distributed revenue would be used.
In deciding whether the resolution process should be triggered in reliance on
the condition in
section 57
(3)
, the IFR may have regard to whether the situation
described in
section 57
(3)
(a)
(no distribution agreement in force) has arisen
as a result of bad faith on the part of either of the specified competition
organisers.
If the IFR decides that the resolution process should be triggered, the IFR
must—
notify the two specified competition organisers and give reasons for
its decision, and
set out in the notice—
the qualifying football season or seasons to which the resolution
process relates, and
the question or questions for resolution.
If the IFR decides that the resolution process should not be triggered, the IFR
must notify the two specified competition organisers and give reasons for its
decision.
The IFR must make the decision under
subsection (1)
within the period of 28
days beginning with the day on which the application is made.
The IFR may extend the period in
subsection (7)
by up to a further 28 days
if it considers there are special reasons for doing so.
This section applies where the IFR gives a notice under section 59 (5) .
The two specified competition organisers to which the notice was given must
appoint a mediator before the end of the period of 14 days beginning with
the day on which the notice was given.
If the period mentioned in
subsection (2)
ends without an appointment having
been made by the specified competition organisers, the IFR must appoint a
mediator as soon as reasonably practicable after that period has ended.
The IFR may extend the period in
subsection (2)
by up to a further 28 days
if it considers there are special reasons for doing so.
A person appointed as a mediator under
subsection (3)
must be a person
who the IFR considers to have appropriate skills and experience.
A mediator appointed under this section must mediate negotiations between
the specified competition organisers on the question or questions for resolution
until whichever of the following events occurs first—
the specified competition organisers resolve the question or questions
for resolution (whether by entering into a distribution agreement or
otherwise);
the end of the period of 28 days beginning with the day on which the
mediator is appointed;
the specified competition organisers agree to terminate the mediation;
the mediator notifies the specified competition organisers that the
mediator considers—
that there is no reasonable prospect of the specified competition
organisers resolving the question or questions for resolution
(whether by entering into a distribution agreement or otherwise)
within the period mentioned in paragraph (b), or
either of the specified competition organisers is acting in bad
faith.
A notification under subsection (6) (d) must include reasons for the decision.
This section
applies where mediation under
section 60
comes to an end by
virtue of the occurrence of an event within
section 60
(6)
(b)
,
(c)
or
(d)
.
As soon as reasonably practicable after the occurrence of the event, the Chief
Executive Officer must establish a committee of the Expert Panel (see
paragraph 26
of
Schedule 2
).
Once established, the committee must give notice to the two specified
competition organisers.
A notice under subsection (3) must—
specify the qualifying football season or seasons in question,
set out the question or questions for resolution,
invite each of the two specified competition organisers to submit to
the committee a final proposal as to how that question or those
questions should be resolved,
require any final proposal to be accompanied by supporting evidence,
specify the day on or before which final proposals are to be submitted
to the committee, and
state the period by the end of which the committee must make a
decision (see
section 62
(5)
).
A notice under
subsection (3)
may, where the committee considers it relevant
to the question or questions for resolution, require the specified competition
organisers to explain in a final proposal how the final proposal will promote
the financial sustainability of clubs which operate teams relegated from a
competition organised by the specified competition organiser.
The committee may specify in the notice the form and manner in which final
proposals and supporting evidence must be submitted.
Subsection (8)
applies if, on or before the day specified by virtue of
subsection
(4)
(e)
, a specified competition organiser submits to the committee a final
proposal which the committee considers does not explain how the question
or questions for resolution should be resolved or does not comply with a
requirement imposed by virtue of
subsection (4)
(d)
or
(5)
(if applicable).
The committee may give both specified competition organisers a notice
specifying a later day (falling not more than seven days after the end of the
day specified by virtue of
subsection (4)
(e)
) on or before which final proposals
are to be submitted to the committee.
Where, on or before the final proposal deadline, the committee of the Expert
Panel receives final proposals from both specified competition organisers
under
section 61
—
if the committee considers that both final proposals are consistent with
the principles in
subsection (2)
, the committee must make an order
requiring the relevant revenue to be distributed in accordance with
whichever proposal the committee considers to be more consistent
with those principles;
if the committee considers that one final proposal is consistent with
the principles in
subsection (2)
but the other is not, the committee
must make an order requiring the relevant revenue to be distributed
in accordance with the proposal that is consistent;
if the committee considers that neither final proposal is consistent with
the principles in
subsection (2)
, the committee must—
terminate the resolution process, and
notify the specified competition organisers that it has done so.
The principles in this subsection are that the final proposal—
should advance the IFR’s objectives,
should not place an undue burden on the commercial interests of
either specified competition organiser, and
should not, if a distribution order were made in accordance with the
final proposal, result in a lower amount of relegation revenue being
distributed to a club during the relevant period than would have been
distributed to the club during that period had such a distribution order
not been made.
For the purposes of subsection (2) —
“
relegation revenue” means revenue distributed by a specified competition
organiser to a club in consequence of a team operated by the club
being relegated from a specified competition organised by the specified
competition organiser;
“
relevant period”, in relation to a final proposal, means the period of
one year beginning with the final day of the first football season in
respect of which relegation revenue would be distributed in pursuance
of any distribution order made in accordance with the final proposal.
Where the final proposal deadline has passed and the committee has received
a completed final proposal from only one specified competition organiser—
if the committee considers that the proposal is consistent with the
principles in
subsection (2)
, the committee must make an order
requiring the relevant revenue to be distributed in accordance with
that proposal;
if the committee considers that the proposal is not consistent with the
principles in
subsection (2)
, the committee must—
terminate the resolution process, and
notify the specified competition organisers that it has done so.
Where the final proposal deadline has passed without the committee receiving
a completed final proposal from either specified competition organiser, the
committee must—
terminate the resolution process, and
notify the specified competition organisers that it has done so.
Where
subsection (1)
(a)
or
(b)
or
(4)
(a)
applies, the committee must make the
order on or before the last day of the period of 28 days beginning with the
final proposal deadline.
The committee may extend the period in
subsection (6)
by up to a further 28
days if it considers there are special reasons for doing so.
A distribution order—
must impose on the specified competition organisers such obligations
as the committee considers appropriate for the purpose of securing
compliance with the requirement imposed by virtue of
subsection
(1)
(a)
or
(b)
or
(4)
(a)
, and
may, where a distribution agreement is in force between the specified
competition organisers in relation to the same qualifying football
season or seasons to which the order relates, provide for that agreement
to have effect subject to provision contained in the order.
The committee must, as soon as reasonably practicable after making a
distribution order, publish the order or a summary of the order.
At the same time as making a distribution order, the committee must give
the specified competition organisers a notice—
summarising the question or questions for resolution,
including a copy of the order,
giving reasons for the order, and
including information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of not complying with the order.
For the purposes of this section —
“the final proposal deadline” means—
the day referred to in section 61 (4) (e) , or
where the committee gives a notice under
section 61
(8)
, the
day referred to in the notice;
references to a “completed” final proposal are to a final proposal which
the committee considers—
explains how the question or questions for resolution should
be resolved, and
complies with the requirements imposed by virtue of
section
61
(4)
(d)
and
(5)
(if applicable).
A distribution order comes into force at such time as the order may specify.
A distribution order ceases to have effect—
on such day as may be specified in the order, or
if revoked under subsection (3) or (4) .
The IFR may revoke a distribution order if it considers that there are
exceptional circumstances that make it appropriate to do so.
The IFR must revoke a distribution order where it is satisfied that the two
specified competition organisers have, after the making of the order, entered
into a distribution agreement relating to the same qualifying football season
or seasons to which the distribution order relates.
Where the IFR revokes a distribution order, it must give a notice to that effect
to the specified competition organisers.
The notice must include the reasons for the IFR’s decision.
The notice may include transitional, transitory or saving provision in relation
to the revocation of the distribution order.
The IFR must keep under review—
the extent to which specified competition organisers are complying
with a distribution order which has effect in respect of them,
whether to take enforcement action under
Part 8
in respect of a
specified competition organiser which does not comply with a
distribution order, and
whether to revoke a distribution order.
The IFR may by rules make provision about the payment of costs incurred
by it or any other person under or by virtue of
this Part
.
Nothing in this Part —
affects the capacity of one or more specified competition organisers
to agree, at any time, how relevant revenue received by a specified
competition organiser is to be distributed (whether by entering into
a distribution agreement or otherwise), or
prevents such an agreement from having effect or being enforced
(subject to
section 62
(7)
(b)
).
The IFR may give a person a notice (an “information notice”) requiring the
person to give specified information to the IFR where the IFR considers that
the information is necessary for the purpose of exercising the IFR’s functions
under this Act.
An information notice must—
explain why the IFR requires the information;
state the time by which, or the frequency with which, the information
must be given to the IFR;
state the place at which, or the manner (which may be remote) in
which, the information must be given to the IFR;
state the form in which the information must be given to the IFR;
include information about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of
not complying with the notice.
The power under this section to require a person to give information to the
IFR includes the power to—
take copies of or extracts from the information given to the IFR;
require the person to obtain or generate information for the purpose
of giving that information to the IFR;
require the person to collect or retain information that they would not
otherwise collect or retain for the purpose of giving that information
to the IFR;
if any specified information is not given to the IFR, require the person
to state, to the best of their knowledge and belief, both where that
information is and why it has not been given to the IFR.
In this section, “specified” means—
specified, or described, in the information notice, or
falling within a category which is specified, or described, in the
information notice.
The IFR may appoint a person (“an expert reporter”) to prepare, and provide
the IFR with, a report in relation to a regulated club on any matter where
the IFR considers that a report on the matter is necessary for the purpose of
exercising the IFR’s functions under this Act.
Where the IFR appoints an expert reporter the IFR must give the club
concerned a notice—
stating the name of the expert reporter;
giving details of the matter on which the report is to be prepared;
including information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of failing to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructing, the expert reporter in the preparation of the report.
An expert reporter must be a person appearing to the IFR—
to have the skills necessary to provide a report on the matter
concerned, and
not to have a conflict of interest.
An expert reporter may by notice require a person to give specified
information to the expert reporter where the expert reporter considers that
the information is necessary for the purpose of preparing a report under this
section.
A notice under subsection (4) must—
explain why the expert reporter requires the information;
state the time by which, or the frequency with which, the specified
information must be given to the expert reporter;
state the place at which, or the manner (which may be remote) in
which, the information must be given to the expert reporter;
state the form in which the information must be given to the expert
reporter;
include information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of—
not complying with the notice, or
failing to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructing,
the expert reporter in the preparation of the report.
The power under
subsection (4)
to require a person to give information to
an expert reporter includes the power to—
take copies of or extracts from the information given to the expert
reporter;
require the person to obtain or generate information for the purpose
of giving that information to the expert reporter;
require the person to collect or retain information that they would not
otherwise collect or retain for the purpose of giving that information
to the expert reporter;
if any specified information is not given to the expert reporter, require
the other person to state, to the best of their knowledge and belief,
both where that information is and why it has not been given to the
expert reporter.
A person to whom an expert reporter gives a notice under
subsection (4)
and
the club to which a report under this section relates—
must co-operate with the expert reporter in connection with the
preparation of the report, and
must give the expert reporter such reasonable assistance as the expert
reporter requests (including access to business premises, equipment,
services, information and individuals) in connection with the
preparation of the report.
In this section “specified” means—
specified or described in the notice under subsection (4) , or
falling within a category which is specified or described in the notice.
The IFR may by rules make provision for—
costs incurred by it in relation to the appointment of a person under
this section, or
expenses incurred by a person appointed under this section in
connection with the preparation of a report under this section,
to be payable by the club concerned.
In this Act, references to a “relevant infringement” are to be construed in accordance with Schedule 7 .
The IFR may conduct an investigation where it has reasonable grounds for
suspecting that a person has committed a relevant infringement.
Schedule 8
sets out the powers available to the IFR where it decides to conduct
an investigation.
Where the IFR decides to conduct an investigation it must, as soon as
reasonably practicable after making the decision, give a notice (an
“investigation notice”) to the person it has reasonable grounds for suspecting
to have committed a relevant infringement.
An investigation notice is a notice—
stating that the IFR has decided to conduct an investigation;
indicating the relevant infringement the IFR has reasonable grounds
for suspecting to have been committed;
explaining the matter being investigated.
The IFR may delay giving an investigation notice if it considers that giving
the notice would prejudice the investigation.
Where the IFR delays giving an investigation notice in accordance with
subsection (5)
, it must give the investigation notice to the person concerned
as soon as reasonably practicable after the IFR no longer considers that giving
the notice would prejudice the investigation.
When the IFR conducts an investigation under
section 68
into whether a
person has committed a relevant infringement, the IFR must determine—
whether the person committed the infringement, and
if so, whether the person had a reasonable excuse for committing the
infringement.
The IFR must give a person a closure notice where—
the IFR determines that the person has not committed the infringement,
or
the IFR determines that the person has committed the infringement
but is not minded to take any action as a result of that determination
(whether because the person had a reasonable excuse for committing
the infringement, or otherwise).
A closure notice is a notice—
stating the IFR’s determination, and
explaining the IFR’s determination.
Where the IFR has accepted a commitment from the person to whom an
investigation relates (see
section 70
),
this section
does not apply in relation
to the behaviour to which the commitment relates.
Part 8
contains provision about cases where the IFR determines that a person
has committed a relevant infringement and is minded to take action as a
result of that determination.
Where an investigation under
section 68
relates to a relevant infringement to
which
this section
applies, the IFR may accept an appropriate commitment
from the person to whom the investigation relates as to their behaviour in
respect of the relevant infringement.
A commitment is “appropriate” if the IFR considers that the person’s
compliance with the commitment would mean that it would not be necessary
to carry out an investigation so far as relating to the behaviour to which the
commitment relates.
Where the IFR accepts a commitment under this section —
subject to
subsection (4)
, the IFR may not take action under
Part 8
in
respect of the relevant infringement, so far as relating to the behaviour,
and
the person that gave the commitment must comply with it while it
has effect.
But the acceptance of a commitment—
does not prevent an investigation from continuing so far as it relates
to other behaviour in relation to the same or a different relevant
infringement;
does not prevent the IFR beginning a new investigation in relation to
the behaviour to which the commitment relates where the IFR has
reasonable grounds to suspect that—
there has been a material change of circumstances since the
commitment was accepted,
the person has not complied with the commitment in any
respect, or
information which led it to accept the commitment was
incomplete, false or misleading in a material particular.
This section
applies to relevant infringements that are relevant infringements
by virtue of any of the following provisions of
Schedule 7
—
paragraph 2 (3) (c) or (d) ;
paragraph 3 (a) or (f) ;
paragraph 4 (a) or (f) ;
paragraph 5
, but only so far as the relevant infringement mentioned
in
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
of
that paragraph
is a relevant infringement
mentioned in
paragraph (a)
or
(b)
of
this subsection
;
paragraph 6 (b) , (c) or (f) .
This section
is without prejudice to the power of the IFR to attach or vary a
discretionary licence condition to an operating licence that relates to behaviour
in respect of a relevant infringement.
Where the IFR decides to accept, or not to accept, a commitment from a
person under
section 70
the IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after
so deciding, give the person a notice—
including the commitment,
stating the relevant infringement to which the commitment relates,
stating that the IFR has accepted, or not accepted, the commitment,
and
explaining why the IFR has accepted, or not accepted, the commitment.
A commitment accepted under section 70 —
comes into force when notice of the IFR’s acceptance of it is given
under
subsection (1)
, and
ceases to have effect if under
subsection (4)
the person is released
from the commitment.
The IFR may, from time to time, accept a variation to a commitment accepted
under
section 70
provided the commitment as varied would still be appropriate
(and for that purpose subsections
(1)
and
(2)
apply in relation to a variation
to a commitment as they apply in relation to the acceptance of a commitment).
The IFR may release a person from a commitment accepted under section 70 where it considers that it would be appropriate to do so.
Where the IFR decides to release a person from a commitment accepted under
section 70
the IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after so deciding,
give the person a notice—
stating that the IFR has released the person from the commitment,
and
explaining why the IFR is releasing the person from the commitment.
The fact that a commitment under accepted
section 70
ceases to have effect
does not affect the exercise of any functions in relation to a failure, or possible
failure, to comply with that commitment.
The IFR must keep under review—
the extent to which a person which gave a commitment accepted under section 70 is complying with it,
the appropriateness of such a commitment,
whether a person should be released from such a commitment (and
whether a discretionary licence condition should be attached to an
operating licence, or varied, instead), and
the appropriateness of taking action in accordance with
Part 8
in
respect of a person who fails to comply with such a commitment.
Where the IFR gives a person a notice under this section it may also publish
that notice.
A person who knows or suspects that an investigation under
section 68
is
being, or is likely to be, conducted must not, without reasonable excuse—
destroy or otherwise dispose of relevant information,
falsify or conceal relevant information, or
cause or permit the destruction, disposal, falsification or concealment
of relevant information.
In
subsection (1)
, “relevant information” means any information which the
person knows or suspects is or would be relevant to the investigation.
Nothing in this Part authorises the IFR, an officer of the IFR or an expert
reporter to require a person to produce, generate or give to the IFR, an officer
of the IFR or an expert reporter a privileged communication.
Nothing in this Part authorises the IFR, an officer of the IFR or an expert
reporter to produce or take possession of, or take copies of or extracts from,
a privileged communication (but see Part 2 of the Criminal Justice and Police
Act 2001 for additional powers of seizure).
For the purposes of this section—
“privileged communication” means a communication—
between a professional legal adviser and their client, or
made in connection with, or in contemplation of, legal
proceedings and for the purposes of those proceedings,
which in proceedings in the High Court would be protected from disclosure on grounds of legal professional privilege;
“expert reporter” means a person appointed under section 66 .
Where the IFR gives a person—
an investigation notice under section 68 , or
a closure notice under section 69 ,
it must, as soon as reasonably practicable after giving the notice, publish the notice.
Part 1
of
Schedule 9
sets out the action the IFR may take in relation to a
person where—
the IFR determines that the person has, without reasonable excuse,
failed to comply with an information requirement, or
the IFR is satisfied beyond reasonable doubt that the person has
committed an offence under
section 78
.
In
subsection (1)
and in
Part 1
of
Schedule 9
, “information requirement” means
a requirement imposed by or under section
65
,
66
or
72
or
Schedule 8
.
Part 2
of
Schedule 9
sets out the action the IFR may take where (whether as
a result of an investigation or otherwise) the IFR determines that a person
has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement (but this
is subject to
subsection (6)
).
Part 3
of
Schedule 9
makes provision in connection with financial penalties
under paragraphs
3
and
6
of that Schedule.
The IFR may not take action in relation to a person under
Schedule 9
in
respect of an act or omission which constitutes an offence under
section 78
if the person has, in relation to that act or omission, been found guilty of that
offence.
The IFR may not take action in relation to a club where it determines that
the club has, without reasonable excuse, committed a relevant infringement
by virtue of
paragraph 2
(4)
(a)
(ii)
of
Schedule 7
(but it may, in respect of such
an infringement, take action in relation to a senior manager by virtue of
paragraph 5
of that Schedule).
Where the IFR is minded to take action in relation to a person in accordance
with
section 75
and
Schedule 9
, the IFR must first give the person a warning
notice.
A warning notice is a notice that—
gives details of the action the IFR is minded to take,
explains why the IFR is minded to take the action,
invites the person concerned to make representations about the
proposed action,
specifies the means by which, and the period within which, such
representations must be made, and
states whether the decision whether to take action is to be taken by
the Board or delegated under
paragraph 17
of
Schedule 2
, and if it is
to be delegated, to which person or committee listed in
that paragraph
it is to be delegated.
The period for making representations must be a period of not less than 14
days beginning with the day on which the warning notice is given.
The IFR must have regard to any representations received in accordance with
a warning notice before giving a decision notice under
section 77
(and,
accordingly, may not take action in accordance with
section 75
and
Schedule
9
until the period allowed for representations has expired).
As soon as reasonably practicable after the period allowed for representations
under
section 76
has expired, the IFR must—
determine whether to take action in relation to the person in accordance
with
section 75
and
Schedule 9
, and
give the person a decision notice.
A decision notice is a notice that—
states—
the action that the IFR is taking (which, subject to
subsection
(3)
, does not need to be the same action detailed in the warning
notice), or
that the IFR is not taking action,
explains why the IFR is taking that action or is not taking action,
where the IFR is taking action, states—
what action (if any) the person is required to take as a result,
and
the day or days by which the person is required to take that
action, and
states whether the decision to take action, or not to take action, was
made by the Board or delegated under
paragraph 17
of
Schedule 2
, and if it was delegated, to which person or committee listed in
that
paragraph
it was delegated.
The IFR may not take action under
paragraph 9
of
Schedule 9
(suspension
or revocation of operating licence) unless action under
that paragraph
was
detailed in the warning notice.
Subsection (5) applies where the IFR—
has given a person a decision notice and has taken the action stated
in it, but
considers that the action has been ineffective.
The IFR may take further action in accordance with
section 75
and
Schedule
9
(and
section 76
and this section apply in relation to any such further action).
A person commits an offence if the person—
intentionally or recklessly destroys or otherwise disposes of relevant
information,
falsifies or conceals relevant information, or
causes or permits the destruction, disposal, falsification or concealment
of relevant information.
In
subsection (1)
, “relevant information” means information the person is
required, under or by virtue of this Act, to give to—
the IFR, or
an expert reporter appointed under section 66 .
A person commits an offence if—
the person gives information to—
the IFR in connection with any of its functions under this Act,
or
an expert reporter appointed under
section 66
in connection
with the preparation of a report under that section,
the information is false or misleading in a material particular, and
the person knows or is reckless as to whether that is the case.
A person commits an offence if the person gives information to another person
which is false or misleading in a material particular and the person—
knows that the information is false or misleading in a material
particular or is reckless as to whether that is the case, and
knows that the information will be given to—
the IFR in connection with any of its functions under this Act,
or
an expert reporter appointed under
section 66
in connection
with the preparation of a report under that section.
A person commits an offence if the person intentionally obstructs an officer
of the IFR acting in the exercise of the officer’s powers under a warrant issued
under
paragraph 3
of
Schedule 8
.
A person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—
on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
the general limit in a magistrates’ court, to a fine or to both;
on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
2 years, to a fine, or to both.
A person may not be found guilty of an offence under this section by virtue
of an act or omission if the IFR has taken action under
Schedule 9
in relation
to the person in relation to that act or omission.
This section applies where—
the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or
otherwise) that a person has, without reasonable excuse, committed
a relevant infringement,
the relevant infringement is continuing, and
the relevant infringement jeopardises, or immediately risks
jeopardising, the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its objectives.
The IFR may give the person such direction as the IFR considers appropriate
to bring the relevant infringement to an end (an “urgent direction”).
An urgent direction must—
explain why the IFR is giving a direction;
state the action the direction requires the person to take or the action
the direction prohibits the person from taking;
state the period during which the action must be taken or the
prohibited action must not be taken (as the case may be);
include information about the possible consequences under
Part 8
of
not complying with the direction;
if the IFR did not give the person concerned an opportunity to make
representations before giving the direction, explain why;
include any other information the IFR considers relevant.
A period specified in an urgent direction may be indefinite.
An urgent direction may be varied or revoked by a further urgent direction.
Where the IFR is minded to vary an urgent direction so as to extend a time
period, the IFR must invite the person concerned to make representations
before giving a further urgent direction.
Before giving a further urgent direction the IFR must have regard to any
representations received (whether in response to an invitation under
subsection
(6)
or otherwise).
Where the IFR gives a person—
a warning notice under section 76 ,
a decision notice under section 77 , or
an urgent direction under section 79 ,
it must, as soon as reasonably practicable after giving the notice or direction, publish that notice or direction.
Where the IFR makes a reviewable decision, the IFR must, as soon as
reasonably practicable after making the decision, notify each concerned person
of—
the person’s right to request a review by the applicable reviewer under section 82 , and
the person’s right to appeal to the Tribunal under section 84 .
In this Part—
“
applicable reviewer”, in relation to a reviewable decision, means the
person mentioned in the corresponding entry in the second column
of the Table in
Schedule 10
;
“
concerned person”, in relation to a reviewable decision, means a person
who appears to the IFR to be directly affected by the decision;
“
reviewable decision” means a decision listed in the first column of the
Table in
Schedule 10
.
Where the IFR makes a reviewable decision, a concerned person may request
a review of that decision by the applicable reviewer.
A concerned person may request a review by notifying the IFR within the
period of seven days beginning with the day on which the person is notified
of their right to request a review under
section 81
(1)
(a)
.
Where a review of a reviewable decision is requested under
this section
, the
IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after the request is made, decide
whether or not to carry out a review.
The IFR may only decide not to carry out a review if—
an appeal has been made against the reviewable decision under
section
84
(1)
(whether by a concerned person or any other person with a
sufficient interest in the decision),
the request is for a review of a decision that is not a reviewable
decision, or
the IFR considers that—
the person requesting the review is not a concerned person,
the request for a review is vexatious, or
there is no reasonable prospect of a review resulting in the
decision being varied or cancelled.
Where the IFR decides not to carry out a review of a reviewable decision—
the IFR must notify each concerned person of its decision and the
reasons for that decision,
the applicable reviewer is treated as having decided to uphold the
reviewable decision, and
the IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after giving the notice
required under
paragraph (a)
, publish notice of the fact that the
applicable reviewer is treated as having decided to uphold the
reviewable decision.
Where the IFR decides to carry out a review of a reviewable decision, it must
notify each concerned person of its decision.
A request for a review under
this section
does not suspend the effect of the
decision to which the review relates except so far as a direction suspending
the effect of the decision is given by the applicable reviewer.
But the applicable reviewer may not give a direction suspending the effect
of a decision of the IFR to—
attach a discretionary licence condition to, or vary a discretionary
licence condition attached to, an operating licence in a case where the
IFR was not required to give notice of attaching or varying the
condition by virtue of
section 23
(6)
;
give a direction under
section 41
(directions relating to unsuitable
owners and officers);
specify a competition as a prohibited competition under section 45 ;
give an urgent direction under section 79 ;
suspend or revoke an operating licence under
paragraph 9
of
Schedule
9
by virtue of the third aggravating condition in
paragraph 8
of
that
Schedule
being met.
In the case of a reviewable decision in relation to which the applicable
reviewer is a committee of the Expert Panel, the Chief Executive Officer must,
as soon as reasonably practicable after the IFR has given notice under
subsection (6)
, establish a committee of the Expert Panel to carry out the
review (see
paragraph 26
of
Schedule 2
).
In a case where—
the reviewable decision was made by a committee of the Expert Panel
(“the deciding committee”), and
the applicable reviewer in relation to that decision is also a committee
of the Expert Panel (“the reviewing committee”),
the Chief Executive Officer may not appoint to the reviewing committee a member of the Expert Panel who was a member of the deciding committee.
In a case where the reviewable decision was made by the Board and the
applicable reviewer in relation to that decision is also the Board, any member
of the Board who took part in the decision may not take part in the review.
Where the IFR decides to carry out a review of a reviewable decision—
the applicable reviewer may determine the nature and extent of the
review, and
the applicable reviewer must have regard to any representations made
by the concerned person in accordance with that determination.
The applicable reviewer may, after carrying out a review, decide to—
uphold the decision,
vary the decision, or
cancel the decision.
The IFR must—
notify each concerned person in relation to the reviewable decision of
the applicable reviewer’s decision on a review and the reasons for
that decision, and
as soon as reasonably practicable after giving the notice required under paragraph (a) , publish the decision.
The IFR must give the notice required under subsection (3) (a) —
where the reviewer is the Board, before the end of the period of 14
days beginning with the day on which the IFR gave notice under
section 82
(6)
;
where the reviewer is a committee of the Expert Panel, before the end
of the period of 14 days beginning with the day on which the
committee is established.
The IFR may, if it considers that there are special reasons for doing so, extend
by up to a further 14 days the period within which it is to give notice of the
decision of the applicable reviewer.
If the IFR does not give the notice required under
subsection (3)
(a)
to each
concerned person before the end of the period given by
subsection (4)
or
(5)
—
the applicable reviewer is treated as having decided to uphold the
reviewable decision, and
the IFR must—
as soon as reasonably practicable after the end of the period
given by
subsection (4)
or
(5)
, notify each concerned person of
the fact that the applicable reviewer is treated as having
decided to uphold the reviewable decision, and
as soon as reasonably practicable after giving the notice
required by
sub-paragraph (i)
, publish notice of that fact.
The IFR may make rules providing for costs incurred by the IFR in exercising
functions under
this section
to be payable by a concerned person who
requested a review of a reviewable decision where—
the applicable reviewer has decided to uphold the reviewable decision
(but excluding where the applicable reviewer is treated as having
upheld the reviewable decision under
subsection (6)
(a)
), and
both the reviewable decision and the applicable reviewer’s decision
to uphold it have become final.
A decision becomes final—
when the time specified in
Part 5B
of the Tribunal Procedure Rules
for appealing against it expires without an appeal having been brought,
or
where an appeal has been brought against the decision, when—
the appeal and any further appeal are dismissed, withdrawn
or abandoned, and
the time for appealing against the result of the appeal or further
appeal has expired without another appeal having been
brought.
Rules made under
subsection (7)
must require the IFR, in deciding whether
to require payment of costs or determining the amount of those costs, to have
regard to the financial resources of the concerned person who requested the
review.
This section applies to—
a reviewable decision of the IFR listed in subsection (3) ,
a decision made by an applicable reviewer under section 83 (2) , and
A concerned person, or any other person with a sufficient interest, may appeal
to the Tribunal against a decision to which
this section
applies.
The reviewable decisions specified for the purposes of subsection (1) (a) are—
the revocation of an operating licence under section 19 ;
a deemed determination under
section 32
(5)
that a person is not
suitable to be an owner or officer of a club;
a deemed determination under
section 34
that an individual is not
suitable to be an owner of a club;
a deemed determination under
section 35
that an individual is not
suitable to be an officer of a club;
the making of an order under
section 38
(disqualification) in respect
of a person;
the suspension or revocation of an operating licence under
paragraph
9
of
Schedule 9
.
But a person may not appeal to the Tribunal against a reviewable decision
listed in
subsection (3)
if—
an applicable reviewer has been requested to review that decision
under
section 82
(whether or not by the person), and
the applicable reviewer has not made a decision or deemed decision
on that review.
A person appeals to the Tribunal under
subsection (2)
by sending the Tribunal
a notice of appeal in accordance with Tribunal Procedure Rules.
The notice of appeal must be sent within the period specified, in relation to
the decision appealed against, in
Part 5B
of the Tribunal Procedure Rules.
An appeal under
subsection (2)
does not suspend the effect of the decision
to which the appeal relates except so far as a direction suspending the effect
of the decision is given by the Tribunal.
But the Tribunal may not give a direction suspending the effect of the decision
in relation to—
a decision of the IFR listed in section 82 (8) , or
a decision or deemed decision of an applicable reviewer in respect of
a reviewable decision listed in
section 82
(8)
.
An appeal lies to the Court of Appeal on any point of law arising from a
decision of the Tribunal on an appeal under
this section
.
An appeal under
subsection (9)
requires the permission of the Tribunal or
the Court of Appeal.
The Tribunal must determine any appeal under section 84 (1) in relation to—
a reviewable decision listed in section 84 (3) , or
a decision or deemed decision of an applicable reviewer under
section
83
(2)
in respect of a reviewable decision listed in
section 84
(3)
,
on the merits by reference to the grounds of appeal set out in the notice of appeal.
The Tribunal must determine any other appeal under
section 84
(1)
by applying
the same principles as would be applied by the High Court in determining
proceedings on judicial review.
Where
subsection (1)
applies in relation to an appeal, the Tribunal may confirm
or set aside the decision which is the subject of the appeal, or any part of it,
and may—
remit the matter to the IFR or the applicable reviewer (as the case may
be),
take such other steps as the IFR or the applicable reviewer could have
taken, or
make any other decision which the IFR or the applicable reviewer
could have made.
Where subsection (2) applies in relation to an appeal, the Tribunal—
may dismiss the appeal or quash the whole or part of the decision to
which it relates, and
may, where it quashes the whole or part of that decision, remit the
matter to the IFR with a direction to reconsider and make a new
decision in accordance with the ruling of the Tribunal.
In
subsection (1)
, the reference to a deemed decision of an applicable reviewer
is to a decision that the applicable reviewer is treated as having made by
virtue of
section 82
(5)
(b)
or
83
(6)
(a)
.
The IFR may disclose information held in connection with its functions under
this Act to—
a person specified in
subsection (2)
, for the purpose of facilitating the
exercise of that person’s functions;
a person specified in
subsection (3)
, for a purpose connected with the
exercise of the IFR’s functions under this Act.
The persons specified for the purposes of subsection (1) (a) are—
HMRC;
the Secretary of State;
the Welsh Ministers;
the Financial Conduct Authority;
the National Crime Agency;
the Serious Fraud Office;
the Sports Grounds Safety Authority.
The persons specified for the purposes of subsection (1) (b) are—
the Football Association;
the Football Association Premier League Limited, a company
incorporated in England and Wales (company number 02719699);
the Football Association of Wales Limited, a company incorporated
in England and Wales (company number 00213349);
the Football Conference Limited, a company incorporated in England
and Wales (company number 03364308);
the Football League Limited, a company incorporated in England and
Wales (company number 00080612);
the Women’s Professional Leagues Limited, a company incorporated
in England and Wales (company number 15675947).
A disclosure of information under this section—
does not breach any obligation of confidence owed by the IFR, and
does not breach any other restriction on the disclosure of information
(however imposed) (but see
section 88
(2)
).
Information disclosed under subsection (1) must not be—
used for a purpose other than the purpose mentioned in
subsection
(1)
(a)
or
(b)
(as the case may be), or
further disclosed,
except where the use or disclosure is required by another enactment or is made in pursuance of a court order.
HMRC may disclose information to a person to whom
subsection (2)
applies
for the purpose of facilitating the exercise of the functions that person has
under, or by virtue of, this Act.
This subsection applies to—
the IFR;
a trustee appointed by an order under section 43 ;
an expert reporter appointed under section 66 .
The disclosure of information to a person to whom
subsection (2)
applies in
accordance with any provision made by or under this Act—
does not breach any obligation of confidence owed by the person
making the disclosure, and
does not breach any other restriction on the disclosure of information
(however imposed) (but see
section 88
(2)
).
The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision for, and in
connection with, conferring functions on a public authority relating to the
disclosure of information by that authority to a person to whom
subsection
(2)
applies for the purpose of facilitating the exercise of the functions that
person has under, or virtue of, this Act.
In
subsection (4)
, “public authority” has the same meaning as in section 6 of
the Human Rights Act 1998.
Regulations under
subsection (4)
may amend, repeal or revoke provision
made by or under an Act whenever passed or made (including provision
made by or under this Act).
Subsection (2)
applies to a duty or power to process information imposed or
conferred by or under this Act.
A duty or power to which this subsection applies does not operate to require
or authorise the processing of information which would contravene the data
protection legislation (but the duty or power is to be taken into account in
determining whether the processing would contravene that legislation).
A person to whom
section 87
(2)
applies must exclude information from
disclosure under a duty or power to which this subsection applies if it is—
information the disclosure of which might prejudice the prevention
or detection of crime or the investigation or prosecution of an offence,
or
information received (directly or indirectly) from, or that relates to,
the National Crime Agency, unless the National Crime Agency consents
to that disclosure.
A person to whom
section 87
(2)
applies may exclude from disclosure under
a duty or power to which this subsection applies information the disclosure
of which the person considers might significantly harm the legitimate personal
or business interests of the person to whom the information relates.
HMRC information may not be disclosed by a person to whom section 87 (2) applies unless HMRC consents to the disclosure.
If a person to whom
section 87
(2)
applies discloses HMRC information, the
information must not be disclosed by the recipient, or by any person obtaining
the information directly or indirectly from the recipient, unless HMRC consents
to the disclosure.
In this section—
“
the data protection legislation” has the same meaning as in the Data
Protection Act 2018 (see section 3(9) of that Act);
“
HMRC information” means information disclosed under
section 87
(1)
or information that is otherwise received by a person to whom
section
87
(2)
applies (directly or indirectly) from, or that relates to, HMRC.
A person commits an offence if the person discloses information in
contravention of
section 86
(5)
(b)
.
A person commits an offence if the person, in contravention of section 88 (6) or (7) , discloses any revenue and customs information relating to a person whose identity—
is specified in the disclosure, or
can be deduced from it.
It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under subsection (1) or (2) to prove that the person reasonably believed—
that the disclosure was lawful, or
that the information had already and lawfully been made available to
the public.
A person guilty of an offence under subsection (1) is liable—
on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
the general limit in a magistrates’ court, to a fine or to both;
on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
2 years, to a fine or to both.
Subsections (4) and (5) of section 19 of the Commissioners for Revenue and
Customs Act 2005 apply to an offence under
subsection (2)
as they apply to
an offence under that section.
In this section, “revenue and customs information relating to a person” has
the same meaning as in section 19 of the Commissioners for Revenue and
Customs Act 2005.
The IFR may make rules containing provision that supplements, or that gives
effect to, any provision made by this Act (except provision in
Schedule 4
).
Rules made by the IFR may—
confer a discretion on a person;
make different provision for different purposes (including in relation
to different clubs or different persons);
make consequential, supplementary, incidental, transitional or saving
provision.
The IFR may amend, replace or revoke any rule made by the IFR.
Before making, amending or replacing rules, the IFR must consult—
each specified competition organiser, and
such other persons as the IFR considers appropriate.
Subsection (5) does not apply in relation to—
amendments to or replacements of rules, if the IFR considers the
changes to be minor;
levy rules, or to amendments to or replacements of levy rules (see
section 54
(1)
to
(3)
for provision about consultation before the making
of levy rules);
revenue rules, or to amendments to or replacements of revenue rules
(see
paragraph 12
(3)
and
(5)
of
Schedule 9
for provision about
consultation before the making of revenue rules).
As soon as reasonably practicable after making, amending or replacing rules,
the IFR must—
publish the rules, and
notify the Secretary of State.
Any provision in this Act that permits or requires the IFR to make provision
in rules is without prejudice to the generality of
subsection (1)
.
Regulations under this Act may—
confer a discretion on a person;
make different provision for different purposes;
make consequential, supplementary, incidental, transitional or saving
provision.
Regulations under this Act are to be made by statutory instrument.
A statutory instrument containing any of the following (whether alone or
with other provision) may not be made unless a draft of the instrument has
been laid before and approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament—
regulations under—
section 56 (2) (a) (ii) ;
paragraph 16 of Schedule 1 ;
paragraph 22 (3) of Schedule 2 ;
paragraph 15 of Schedule 9 ;
regulations under any other provision of this Act that amend or repeal
provision made by an Act.
Any other statutory instrument containing regulations under this Act is subject
to annulment in pursuance of a resolution of either House of Parliament.
If a draft of an instrument containing regulations under this Act would, apart
from this subsection, be treated for the purposes of the Standing Orders of
either House of Parliament as a hybrid instrument, it is to proceed in that
House as if it were not a hybrid instrument.
This section does not apply to regulations under section 99 .
In this Act—
“
business premises” means premises (or any part of premises) not used
as a dwelling;
“
conflict of interest”, in relation to a person, means a financial or other
interest which is likely to prejudicially affect the discharge by the
person of the person’s functions;
“
the financial resources threshold requirement” means the threshold
requirement in
paragraph 2
of
Schedule 4
;
“
the Football Association” means the Football Association Limited, a
company incorporated in England and Wales (company number
00077797);
“
football season” means a period—
beginning with the day in a particular year on which the first
match of any specified competition is played, and
ending with the day in the following year on which the final
match of any specified competition is played;
“
HMRC” means the Commissioners for His Majesty’s Revenue and
Customs;
“
information” includes—
information in the form of a document, whether in draft or in
final form;
information in any other form;
“
the non-financial resources threshold requirement” means the threshold
requirement in
paragraph 3
of
Schedule 4
;
“
registered society” means a registered society as defined by section 1
of the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 2014;
“
the Tribunal” means the Competition Appeal Tribunal;
“
Tribunal Procedure Rules” means rules made under
section 15
of the
Enterprise Act 2002
.
In this Act, “serious criminal conduct” means conduct which—
amounts to the commission of an offence specified, or falling within
a description specified, in Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Serious Crime
Act 2007, or
would amount to the commission of such an offence if done in England
and Wales.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend this section so as to change—
the definition of “football season” in subsection (1) ;
the definition of “serious criminal conduct” in subsection (2) .
Before making regulations under
subsection (3)
(b)
, the Secretary of State must
consult such persons as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
Any notification required to be given by or under this Act must be given in
writing.
Schedule 11
sets out terms defined by this Act for the purposes of more than
one provision.
This section
applies in relation to a provision of this Act which requires the
IFR to consult another person.
If, before the provision came into force (and whether before or after the
passing of this Act), the Secretary of State or the IFR (as the case may be)
carried out consultation which would have satisfied the requirements of the
provision to any extent if—
in the case of consultation carried out by the Secretary of State, the
provision had been in force and the consultation had been carried out
by the IFR, or
in the case of consultation carried out by the IFR, the provision had
been in force,
the IFR may elect for subsection (3) to apply.
Where
this subsection
applies, requirements on the IFR under the provision
must be treated as satisfied to that extent.
If an offence under this Act committed by a club, or a body corporate other
than a club, is proved—
to have been committed with the consent or connivance of an officer
of the club or of the body corporate, or
to be attributable to neglect on the part of an officer of the club or of
the body corporate,
the officer (as well as the club or the body corporate) is guilty of the offence and is liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
If the affairs of a body corporate other than a club are managed by its
members,
subsection (1)
applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a
member in connection with the member’s functions of management as if the
member were an officer of the body corporate.
In this section, “officer”, in relation to a body corporate other than a club,
means—
where the body is a company, a director of the body;
in any other case, an officer of the body whose functions correspond
to those of a director of a company.
The IFR must pay into the Consolidated Fund any amounts received by it
under
section 53
(levy) that are attributable to—
the recovery of the IFR’s initial costs, or
the Secretary of State’s establishment costs.
The IFR must, in respect of each financial year, pay to the Secretary of State
its relevant receipts after deducting its litigation costs in respect of that year.
The IFR’s “relevant receipts”, in respect of a financial year, are any amounts
received by it during the year that are attributable to—
any interest payable on an amount of levy by virtue of section 53 (8) ,
any penalty imposed under paragraph 3 or 6 of Schedule 9 , or
any interest payable on any such penalty under
paragraph 13
of that
Schedule.
The IFR’s “litigation costs” in respect of a financial year are the costs incurred
by it during the year in connection with litigation.
The Secretary of State may give a direction to the IFR as to how the IFR is
to comply with its duty under
subsection (2)
.
A direction under subsection (5) may in particular—
specify descriptions of costs that are, or are not, to be regarded as
incurred in connection with litigation for the purposes of
subsection
(4)
,
relate to the calculation and timing of the deduction in respect of the
IFR’s litigation costs, and
specify the time when any payment is required to be made to the
Secretary of State.
A direction under
subsection (5)
may also require the IFR, at times specified
in the direction, to provide the Secretary of State with information specified
in the direction relating to costs incurred by the IFR in connection with
litigation.
The Secretary of State must pay into the Consolidated Fund any amounts
received under
subsection (2)
.
In this section—
“
financial year” means—
the period beginning with the day on which this section comes
into force and ending with 31 March in the following year, and
each successive period of 12 months;
“
the IFR’s initial costs” and “the Secretary of State’s establishment costs”
have the same meaning as in
section 53
.
Schedule 12 makes minor and consequential amendments.
The Secretary of State may by regulations make provision that is consequential
on this Act.
Regulations under
this section
may amend, repeal or revoke provision made
by or under an Act passed—
before this Act, or
later in the same session of Parliament as this Act.
Subject to
subsections (2)
and
(3)
, this Act extends to England and Wales
only.
Any amendment, repeal or revocation made by this Act has the same extent
as the provision amended, repealed or revoked.
His Majesty may by Order in Council provide for any of the provisions of
this Act to extend, with or without modifications, to any of the Channel
Islands or to the Isle of Man.
Subject to subsection
(2)
, this Act comes into force on such day or days as
the Secretary of State may by regulations appoint.
This section and the following provisions come into force on the day on which
this Act is passed—
Part 1 (and Schedule 1 );
paragraph 7
of
Schedule 5
(and
section 20
so far as relating to that
paragraph);
sections 88 and 90 to 94 (and Schedule 11 );
paragraphs
1
to
4
and
9
of
Schedule 12
(and
section 97
(1)
so far as
relating to those paragraphs);
any other provision of this Act so far as it—
confers power to make regulations,
imposes a duty or confers power to make rules, or
is otherwise necessary for enabling the exercise of a duty or
power within
sub-paragraph (i)
or
(ii)
on or after the day on
which this Act is passed.
Regulations under
subsection (1)
may appoint different days for different
purposes.
The Secretary of State may by regulations make transitional, transitory or
saving provision in connection with the coming into force of any provision
of this Act.
Regulations under
subsection (4)
may make different provision for different
purposes
Regulations under this section are to be made by statutory instrument.
This Act may be cited as the Football Governance Act 2024.
For the purposes of this Act, a person is an “owner” of a club if—
the person is an individual or a registered society, and
one or more of the conditions in
paragraph 2
are met in relation to
the person.
In the case of a club that is a registered society, if there is no individual in
relation to whom one or more of the conditions in
paragraph 2
are met,
the registered society itself is the owner of the club.
Condition 1 is that the person has the right to exercise, or actually exercises,
significant influence or control over the activities of the club (in whole or
in part).
Condition 2 is that the person holds, directly or indirectly, more than 25%
of the shares in the club.
Condition 3 is that the person holds, directly or indirectly, more than 25%
of the voting rights in the club.
Condition 4 is that the person holds the right, directly or indirectly, to
appoint or remove an officer of the club.
Condition 5 is that—
the trustees of a trust, or the members of a partnership,
unincorporated association or other body, that is not a legal person
under the law by which it is governed would meet one or more of
conditions 1 to 4 (in their capacity as such) in relation to the club
if the references in those conditions to a “person” were to the
trustees or members, and
the person has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, significant
influence or control over the activities of that trust or body (in whole
or in part).
This Part makes provision about the interpretation of this Schedule .
If a person holds a share or right jointly with another person (whether or
not the other person is an individual or a registered society), each of those
persons is to be taken to hold that share or right.
If shares or rights held by a person and shares or rights held by another
person (whether or not the other person is an individual or a registered
society) are the subject of a joint arrangement between those persons, each
of those persons is to be taken to hold the combined shares or rights of
both persons.
A “joint arrangement” is an arrangement between the holders of shares (or
rights) that they will exercise all or substantially all the rights conferred
by their respective shares (or rights) jointly in a way that is pre-determined
by the arrangement.
For the meaning of “arrangement”, see paragraph 12 .
In relation to a club that has a share capital, a reference to holding more
than 25% of the shares in the club is to holding shares comprised in the
issued share capital of the club of a nominal value exceeding (in aggregate)
25% of that share capital.
In relation to a club that does not have a share capital—
a reference to holding shares in the club is to be read as a reference
to holding a right to share in the capital or, as the case may be,
profits of the club;
a reference to holding more than 25% of the shares in the club is
to be read as a reference to holding a right or rights to share in
more than 25% of the capital or, as the case may be, profits of the
club.
A reference to the voting rights in a person is to the rights conferred on
shareholders in respect of their shares (or, in the case of a person not having
a share capital, on members) to vote at general meetings of the person on
all or substantially all matters.
In relation to a person that does not have general meetings at which matters
are decided by the exercise of voting rights—
a reference to holding voting rights in the person is to be read as
a reference to holding rights in relation to the person that are
equivalent to those of a person entitled to exercise voting rights in
a company;
a reference to holding more than 25% of the voting rights in the
person is to be read as a reference to holding the rights under the
constitution of the person to block changes to the overall policy of
the person or to the terms of its constitution.
In applying
this Schedule
, voting rights in a person held by the person
itself are to be disregarded.
A person (“A”) holds a share “indirectly” if A has a majority stake in a
person (“B”) and B—
holds the share, or
is part of a chain of persons—
each of which (other than the last) has a majority stake in
the person immediately below it in the chain, and
the last of which holds the share.
A person (“A”) holds a right “indirectly” if A has a majority stake in a
person (“B”) and B—
holds that right, or
is part of a chain of persons—
each of which (other than the last) has a majority stake in
the person immediately below it in the chain, and
the last of which holds that right.
For the purposes of
sub-paragraphs (1)
and
(2)
, A has a “majority stake”
in B if A—
holds a majority of the voting rights in B,
is a member of B and has the right to appoint or remove an officer
of B,
is a member of B and controls alone, or pursuant to an agreement
with other shareholders or members, a majority of the voting rights
in B, or
has the right to exercise, or actually exercises, dominant influence
or control over B.
A share held by a person as a nominee for another is to be treated as held
by the other (and not by the nominee).
Where a person controls a right, the right is to be treated as held by that
person (and not by the person who in fact holds the right, unless that
person also controls it).
A person “controls” a right if, by virtue of any arrangement between that
person and others, the right is exercisable only—
by that person,
in accordance with that person’s directions or instructions, or
with that person’s consent or concurrence.
For the purposes of this Schedule “arrangement” includes—
any scheme, agreement or understanding, whether or not it is legally
enforceable, and
any convention, custom or practice of any kind.
But something does not count as an arrangement unless there is at least
some degree of stability about it (whether by its nature or terms, the time
it has been in existence or otherwise).
Rights that are exercisable only in certain circumstances are to be taken
into account only—
where the circumstances have arisen, and for so long as they
continue to obtain, or
when the circumstances are within the control of the person having
the rights.
But rights that are exercisable by an administrator or by creditors while a
person is in relevant insolvency proceedings are not to be taken into account
even while the person is in those proceedings.
In this paragraph, “relevant insolvency proceedings” means—
administration within the meaning of the Insolvency Act 1986,
administration within the meaning of the Insolvency (Northern
Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/2405 (N.I. 19)), or
proceedings under the insolvency law of another country or territory
during which a person’s assets and affairs are subject to the control
or supervision of a third party or creditor.
Rights that are normally exercisable but are temporarily incapable of exercise
are to continue to be taken into account.
Rights attached to shares held by way of security provided by a person
are to be treated for the purposes of
this Schedule
as held by that person—
where apart from the right to exercise them for the purpose of
preserving the value of the security, or of realising it, the rights are
exercisable only in accordance with that person’s instructions, and
where the shares are held in connection with the granting of loans
as part of normal business activities and apart from the right to
exercise them for the purpose of preserving the value of the security,
or of realising it, the rights are exercisable only in that person’s
interests.
The Secretary of State must prepare and publish guidance about the
meaning of significant influence or control for the purposes of
this Schedule
.
Regard must be had to that guidance in interpreting references in
this
Schedule
to that phrase.
Before publishing guidance under
this paragraph
the Secretary of State
must lay a draft of it before Parliament.
If, within the 40-day period, either House of Parliament resolves not to
approve the draft guidance, the Secretary of State must take no further
steps in relation to it.
If no such resolution is made within that period, the Secretary of State must
publish the guidance in the form of the draft.
Sub-paragraph (4)
does not prevent a new draft of proposed guidance from
being laid before Parliament.
In
this paragraph
“the 40-day period”, in relation to draft guidance, means
the period of 40 days beginning with the day on which the draft is laid
before Parliament (or, if it is not laid before each House on the same day,
the later of the days on which it is laid).
In calculating the 40-day period, no account is to be taken of any period
during which—
Parliament is dissolved or prorogued, or
both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days.
The Secretary of State may revise guidance published under this paragraph , and a reference in this paragraph to guidance includes a reference to revised guidance.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend
this Schedule
for a
permitted purpose.
The permitted purposes are—
to replace any reference in
this Schedule
to a percentage figure with
a reference to some other (larger or smaller) percentage figure;
to amend
Part 1
of
this Schedule
so as to include circumstances (for
example, circumstances involving more complex structures) that
give a person a level of influence or control over a club broadly
similar to the level of influence or control given by the conditions
in
paragraph 2
;
in consequence of any provision made by virtue of
paragraph (b)
, to amend
Part 2
of
this Schedule
so that circumstances specified in
that Part in which a person is to be regarded as holding an interest
in another person correspond to any of the conditions in
paragraph
2
, or would do so but for the extent of the interest.
Before making regulations under
this paragraph
the Secretary of State must
consult the IFR.
Until the end of the initial period, the IFR is to consist only of the Board.
After the initial period ends, the IFR is to consist of—
the Board, and
the Expert Panel.
In this paragraph the “initial period” means the period which—
begins with the commencement of this Act, and
ends with the time when an appointment of a member of the Expert
Panel takes effect that brings the number of members of the Expert
Panel up to the number that the Chief Executive Officer has
determined in accordance with
paragraph 22
.
The Board is to consist of—
the non-executive members, and
the executive members.
The non-executive members are—
a chair, and
up to seven other members.
The executive members are—
the Chief Executive Officer,
the Chief Finance Officer, and
one other member.
The executive members are to be members of the IFR’s staff.
The non-executive members are to be appointed by the Secretary of State.
A person may not be appointed as a non-executive member if the person
is a member of the IFR’s staff.
The chair may appoint any other non-executive member to be the deputy
chair.
Before appointing a person as the deputy chair, the chair must consult the
Secretary of State.
The deputy chair may carry out the functions of the chair in such cases
and in such manner as may be determined by or in accordance with any
directions given by the chair.
The Chief Executive Officer is to be appointed by the chair.
The other executive members are to be appointed by the Chief Executive
Officer.
Before appointing a person as the Chief Executive Officer, the chair must
consult—
the Secretary of State, and
the non-executive members.
A person (“A”) may not be appointed as member of the Board unless the
person appointing A is satisfied that A does not have a conflict of interest.
A person who appointed a member of the Board must, from time to time,
check that none of the members appointed by them has a conflict of interest.
A person who appointed a member of the Board may require a member
appointed by them to provide whatever information the person considers
necessary for the purpose of checking that the member does not have a
conflict of interest.
A member of the Board who is required to provide information under
sub-paragraph (3)
must provide it within such period as may be specified
by the person who appointed them.
A non-executive member of the Board holds and vacates office in accordance
with that person’s terms of appointment, subject to
this paragraph
and
paragraph 8
.
Any appointment of a non-executive member must be for a fixed term of
not more than five years.
But a person may be appointed as a non-executive member more than
once.
A person may resign as a non-executive member by notifying the Secretary
of State.
A person ceases to be a non-executive member upon becoming a member
of the IFR’s staff.
A non-executive member of the Board may be removed from office as a
member of the Board if the Secretary of State is satisfied that the person—
is guilty of serious misconduct;
has a conflict of interest;
has failed to comply with paragraph 6 (4) ;
is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as a member
of the Board.
The IFR must pay its non-executive members such remuneration as the
Secretary of State may determine.
The IFR must pay, or make provision for paying, to or in respect of a
person who is or has been a non-executive member of the Board, such
sums as the Secretary of State may determine in respect of allowances or
expenses.
The Board may—
appoint employees, and
make such other arrangements for the staffing of the IFR as it
considers appropriate, including arrangements for persons to be
seconded to the IFR.
This paragraph is subject to paragraph 11 .
The terms on which executive members are, by virtue of paragraph 2 (4) , to become, or continue to be—
persons seconded to the IFR under paragraph 10 (1) (b) , or
employees of the IFR,
are to be determined by the non-executive members, subject to
paragraph
12
.
The terms of employment of employees are to be determined by the
non-executive members.
The IFR must pay its employees such remuneration as may be determined
by the non-executive members.
The IFR must pay, or make provision for paying, to or in respect of an
executive member of the IFR, or a member of the IFR’s staff—
such sums in respect of pensions, allowances or gratuities relating
to service as an executive member, or member of staff, as may be
determined by the non-executive members, and
such sums in respect of allowances or expenses as may be
determined by the non-executive members.
A person may resign as an executive member by notifying the chair.
A person ceases to be an executive member upon ceasing to be a member
of the IFR’s staff.
An executive member may be removed from office as a member of the
Board if the person who appointed them is satisfied that the person—
is guilty of serious misconduct;
has a conflict of interest;
has failed to comply with paragraph 6 (4) ;
is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as an
executive member.
Except where otherwise provided by this Act (see
sections 61
and
82
and
paragraphs 17
to
20
), the functions of the IFR are exercisable by the Board
on behalf of the IFR.
The Board may establish committees.
A committee established under
sub-paragraph (1)
may establish
sub-committees.
A committee or sub-committee of the Board may include or consist of
persons who are neither non-executive members nor executive members.
The Board may determine its own procedure and the procedure of any
committee or sub-committee, subject to
this paragraph
.
The quorum for a meeting of the Board is to be determined by the chair
but a meeting of the Board is not quorate unless—
the chair or deputy chair is in attendance, and
(including the chair or deputy chair) at least half of the Board’s
members are in attendance.
A member of the Board may at any time resign from a committee of the
Board by giving written notice to the chair.
The chair may remove a person from membership of a committee of the
Board if the chair considers that—
the person will be unable, for a substantial period, to perform their
duties as a member of the committee, or
because of a particular interest of the member of the committee, it
is inappropriate for them to remain a member of the committee.
Where a person ceases to be a member of a committee of the Board, the
chair may select a replacement member of the committee from the Board.
The validity of proceedings of the Board, or a committee or sub-committee
of the Board, is not affected by a vacancy or defective appointment.
This paragraph applies if—
a member of the Board has a direct or indirect interest in a matter
falling to be considered at a meeting of the Board, or
a member of a committee of the Board has a direct or indirect
interest in a matter falling to be considered at a meeting of the
committee of the Board.
The member with the interest must declare it.
The declaration must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
The member with the interest may not take part in a discussion or decision
at the meeting relating to the matter, unless—
in the case of a meeting of the Board, the other members of the
Board who are present have resolved unanimously that the interest
is to be disregarded, or
in the case of a meeting of a committee of the Board, the other
members of the committee who are present have resolved in the
manner authorised by the Board that the interest is to be
disregarded.
For the purposes of
this paragraph
, a notification given at or sent to a
meeting mentioned in
sub-paragraph (1)
that a person—
is a member of a company or firm, and
is to be regarded as interested in any matter involving that company
or firm,
is to be regarded as compliance with sub-paragraph (2) in relation to any such matter for the purposes of that meeting and subsequent meetings of the Board or the committee of the Board.
A notification described in
sub-paragraph (5)
remains in force until it is
withdrawn.
A person required to make a declaration for the purposes of this paragraph in relation to any meeting—
is not required to attend the meeting, but
is to be taken to have complied with the requirements of
this
paragraph
if the person takes reasonable steps to secure that notice
of the person’s interest is read out, and taken into consideration, at
the meeting in question.
See
section 82
(10)
and
(11)
for related provision (persons who can carry
out internal reviews).
Subject to paragraph 19 , the Board may delegate any of its functions to—
a member of the Board,
a member of the IFR’s staff,
a committee established by the Board, or
the Expert Panel.
A function is delegated under
this paragraph
to the extent and on the terms
that the Board determines.
Subject to
paragraph 19
, a committee established by the Board may delegate
any of its functions to—
a member of the committee, or
a sub-committee established by it.
A function is delegated under
this paragraph
to the extent and on the terms
that the committee of the Board determines.
The power of a committee established by the Board to delegate a function
under
this paragraph
, and to determine the extent and terms of the
delegation, is subject to the Board’s power to direct what a committee
established by it may and may not do.
The following functions of the Board may be delegated by it only to a
committee established by it—
the function of revoking a provisional operating licence under
section
19
;
the function of making a determination under
Part 4
in relation to
a person;
the function of making an order under section 38 or 43 ;
the function of specifying a competition as a prohibited competition
under
section 45
;
the function of suspending or revoking an operating licence under paragraph 9 of Schedule 9 ;
the function of carrying out a review requested under
section 82
of
any decision made by virtue of the exercise of a function mentioned
in
paragraphs (a)
to
(e)
.
A committee of the Board to which a function is delegated under
this
paragraph
may not further delegate the function.
The delegation of a function by the Board under
paragraph 17
or
19
, or by
a committee of the Board under
paragraph 18
, does not prevent the Board
or a committee of the Board (as the case may be) from exercising the
function.
The Board must make arrangements for the keeping of proper records of—
its proceedings,
the proceedings of a committee of the Board, and
anything done by a person or committee to which the Board has
delegated functions under
paragraph 17
(1)
.
The number of members of the Expert Panel is to be determined by the
Chief Executive Officer.
The number must not be less than six.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend the number for the time
being mentioned in
sub-paragraph (2)
.
The members of the Expert Panel are to be appointed by the Chief Executive
Officer.
The Chief Executive Officer must exercise the power in sub-paragraph (1) so as to secure that the range of skills, knowledge and experience of the members of the Expert Panel (taken together) includes skills, knowledge and experience in relation to—
the operation, organisation or governance of clubs or competitions,
and
financial or other regulation.
A person (“A”) may not be appointed as a member of the Expert Panel
unless the Chief Executive Officer is satisfied that A does not have a conflict
of interest.
The Chief Executive Officer must, from time to time, check that none of
the members of the Expert Panel has a conflict of interest.
The Chief Executive Officer may require a member of the Expert Panel to
provide whatever information the Chief Executive Officer considers
necessary for the purpose of checking that the member does not have a
conflict of interest.
A member of the Expert Panel who is required to provide information
under
sub-paragraph (5)
must provide it within such period as may be
specified by the Chief Executive Officer.
A member of the Expert Panel holds and vacates their membership in
accordance with that person’s terms of appointment, subject to
sub-paragraph (2)
.
A member of the Expert Panel may be removed from office as such a
member if the Chief Executive Officer is satisfied that the person—
is guilty of serious misconduct;
has a conflict of interest;
has failed to comply with paragraph 23 (6) ;
is unable, unfit or unwilling to carry out their functions as a member
of the Expert Panel.
The IFR may pay such remuneration or allowances to persons appointed
to the Expert Panel as the Chief Executive Officer may determine.
Where the Board delegates a function to the Expert Panel (see
paragraph
17
), the Chief Executive Officer must, as soon as reasonably practicable
after the Board delegates the function, establish a committee of the Expert
Panel to carry out the function.
The Chief Executive Officer must establish committees of the Expert Panel
where required to so by this Act (see
sections 61
and
82
and
paragraph
25
).
The Chief Executive Officer may establish other committees of the Expert
Panel.
Each committee of the Expert Panel must consist of at least three members
of the Expert Panel appearing to the Chief Executive Officer to have skills,
knowledge or experience relating to the function which is to be exercised
by the committee.
The Chief Executive Officer must appoint one of the members of the
committee of the Expert Panel to chair the committee.
A committee of the Expert Panel may only consist of persons who are
members of the Expert Panel.
The Expert Panel may determine its own procedure and the procedure of
any committee.
A member of the Expert Panel may at any time resign from a committee
of the Expert Panel by giving notice to the Chief Executive Officer.
The Chief Executive Officer may remove a person from membership of a
committee of the Expert Panel if the Chief Executive Officer considers that—
the person will be unable, for a substantial period, to perform their
duties as a member of the committee, or
because of a particular interest of the member of the committee, it
is inappropriate for them to remain a member of the committee.
Where a person ceases to be a member of a committee of the Expert Panel,
the Chief Executive Officer may select a replacement member of the
committee from the Expert Panel.
A person’s ceasing to be a member of a committee of the Expert Panel does
not—
prevent the committee from continuing with anything begun before
the person ceased to be a member of it, or
affect anything done by the person or the committee before the
person ceased to be a member of it (unless the Chief Executive
Officer directs otherwise).
In exercising its functions, the Expert Panel must act independently of the
Board.
But sub-paragraph (1) does not prevent—
the Board giving information in its possession to the Expert Panel
(and the Expert Panel having regard to that information), or
the Expert Panel giving information in its possession to the Board.
This paragraph
applies if a member of a committee of the Expert Panel has
a direct or indirect interest in a matter falling to be considered at a meeting
of that committee.
The member with the interest must declare it.
The declaration must be recorded in the minutes of the meeting.
The member with the interest may not take part in a discussion or decision
at the meeting relating to the matter, unless the other members of the
committee who are present have resolved in the manner authorised by the
Chief Executive Officer that the interest is to be disregarded.
For the purposes of
this paragraph
, a notification given at or sent to a
meeting mentioned in
sub-paragraph (1)
that a person—
is a member of a company or firm, and
is to be regarded as interested in any matter involving that company
or firm,
is to be regarded as compliance with sub-paragraph (2) in relation to any such matter for the purposes of that meeting and subsequent meetings of the committee of the Expert Panel.
A notification described in
sub-paragraph (5)
remains in force until it is
withdrawn.
A person required to make a declaration for the purposes of this paragraph in relation to any meeting—
is not required to attend the meeting, but
is to be taken to have complied with the requirements of
this
paragraph
if the person takes reasonable steps to secure that notice
of the person’s interest is read out, and taken into consideration, at
the meeting in question.
See
section 82
(10)
and
(11)
for related provision (persons who can carry
out internal reviews).
The Chief Executive Officer must make arrangements for the keeping of
proper records of the proceedings of a committee of the Expert Panel.
The Secretary of State must appoint a representative of the Football
Association as an independent observer of the IFR’s proceedings.
The IFR must—
keep proper accounts and proper records in relation to them, and
prepare a statement of accounts in respect of each financial year.
Each statement of accounts must comply with any directions given by the
Secretary of State as to—
its content and form;
the methods and principles to be applied in preparing it;
the additional information (if any) which is to be provided for the
information of Parliament.
The IFR must send a copy of each statement of accounts to the Secretary
of State and the Comptroller and Auditor General as soon as reasonably
practicable after the end of the financial year to which the statement relates.
The Comptroller and Auditor General must—
examine, certify and report on each statement of accounts, and
send a copy of each report and certified statement to the Secretary
of State.
The Secretary of State must lay before Parliament a copy of each document
mentioned in
sub-paragraph (4)
(b)
.
In this paragraph , “financial year” means—
the period beginning with the day on which
this Schedule
comes
into force and ending with 31 March in the following year, and
each successive period of 12 months.
The application of the IFR’s seal must be authenticated by the signature
of—
a member, or
another person authorised for that purpose by the Board.
A document purporting to be duly executed under the IFR’s seal or signed
on its behalf—
is to be received in evidence, and
is to be taken to be executed or signed in that way, unless the
contrary is shown.
The IFR is not to be regarded—
as the servant or agent of the Crown, or
as enjoying any status, immunity or privilege of the Crown.
The IFR’s property is not to be regarded—
as the property of the Crown, or
as property held on behalf of the Crown.
The IFR may do anything which it considers will facilitate, or is incidental
or conducive to, the carrying out of its functions under this Act.
But (subject to paragraph 36 ) the IFR may not borrow money.
The Secretary of State may provide to the IFR such financial assistance as
the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
Financial assistance under
this paragraph
may be provided subject to such
conditions as the Secretary of State considers appropriate.
The Secretary of State may make one or more property transfer schemes
or staff transfer schemes.
A “property transfer scheme” is a scheme for the transfer to the IFR from
the Secretary of State of any property, rights or liabilities, other than rights
or liabilities under or in connection with a contract of employment.
A “staff transfer scheme” is a scheme for the transfer to the IFR from the
Secretary of State of any rights or liabilities under or in connection with a
contract of employment.
The things that may be transferred under a property transfer scheme or a
staff transfer scheme include—
property, rights and liabilities that could not otherwise be
transferred;
property acquired, and rights and liabilities arising, after the making
of the scheme;
criminal liabilities.
A property transfer scheme or a staff transfer scheme may make
supplementary, incidental, transitional or consequential provision and may,
in particular—
create rights, or impose liabilities, in relation to property or rights
transferred;
make provision about the continuing effect of things done by the
Secretary of State in respect of anything transferred;
make provision about the continuation of things (including legal
proceedings) in the process of being done by, on behalf of, or in
relation to, the Secretary of State in respect of anything transferred;
make provision for references to the Secretary of State in an
instrument or other document in respect of anything transferred to
be treated as references to the IFR.
A property transfer scheme may make provision for the shared ownership
or use of property.
A staff transfer scheme may make provision which is the same as or similar
to the Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations
2006 (S.I. 2006/246).
For the purposes of this Schedule—
an individual who holds employment in the civil service of the State
is to be treated as employed by virtue of a contract of employment,
and
the terms of the individual’s employment in the civil service are to
be regarded as constituting the terms of the contract of employment.
The threshold requirements are—
the financial resources threshold requirement (see paragraph 2 ),
the non-financial resources threshold requirement (see
paragraph
3
), and
the fan engagement threshold requirement (see paragraph 4 ).
The financial resources threshold requirement is met, in relation to a club,
if the financial resources of the club are appropriate in relation to the
activities the club carries on or seeks to carry on.
In considering whether a club has appropriate financial resources, the IFR
may have regard to (among other things)—
the corporate structure of the club and, where the club is part of a
group, the group;
the club’s latest financial plan (see
paragraph 2
of
Schedule 5
),
including in particular—
any financial risks identified in the plan, and
any plans described in the plan for managing those risks;
the club’s strategic business plan (see section 16 (5) );
the specified competition in relation to which a relevant team is
operated by the club;
any other competitions in relation to which a team is operated by
the club;
the club’s non-financial resources.
The non-financial resources threshold requirement is met, in relation to a
club, if the non-financial resources of the club are appropriate in relation
to the activities the club carries on or seeks to carry on.
In considering whether a club has appropriate non-financial resources, the
IFR may have regard to (among other things)—
the corporate structure of the club and, where the club is part of a
group, the group;
the qualifications, experience, training and performance of the club’s
owners and officers;
the club’s corporate governance arrangements, including the club’s
latest corporate governance statement (see
paragraph 4
of
Schedule
5
);
the specified competition in relation to which a relevant team is
operated by the club;
any other competitions in relation to which a team is operated by
the club;
the club’s financial resources.
The fan engagement threshold requirement is met, in relation to a club, if
the club has adequate and effective means by which—
the club consults its fans about the relevant matters, and
the club takes the views of its fans into account in making decisions
about the relevant matters.
The relevant matters are matters relating to—
the club’s strategic direction and objectives;
the club’s business priorities;
operational and match-day issues, including ticket pricing;
the club’s heritage;
the club’s plans relating to additional fan engagement.
Matters that relate to the club’s heritage include matters relating to—
the club’s home ground (within the meaning of section 46 );
the crest or predominant home shirt colours of a relevant team
operated by the club;
the name of a relevant team operated by the club.
If the club is in relevant insolvency proceedings (within the meaning given
by
paragraph 13
(3)
of
Schedule 1
)
sub-paragraph (1)
(b)
applies to the extent
that the power to make decisions about the relevant matters remains
exercisable by the club.
For the purposes of this Schedule —
an undertaking (within the meaning of Part 1 of the Competition
Act 1998) is part of a group if one or more bodies corporate which
are comprised in the undertaking are members of the same group
as one or more other bodies corporate;
two or more bodies corporate are members of the same group if—
one is the subsidiary of another, or
both are subsidiaries of the same body corporate;
“subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 1159 of the
Companies Act 2006.
The IFR must attach to each operating licence—
a financial plans condition,
a corporate governance statement condition,
a fan consultation condition, and
an annual declaration condition.
A financial plans condition is a condition requiring a club to—
submit a financial plan containing specified information to the IFR
before a specified date,
update the financial plan—
annually or at such more frequent intervals as may be
specified, and
as soon as reasonably practicable after there has been a
material change in circumstances affecting the club, and
submit that updated plan to the IFR, and
act in accordance with the latest financial plan submitted to the IFR.
For the purposes of paragraph 2 (a) , the IFR—
must specify—
information about how the club is, or is to be, funded and
the source of such funding,
information about expected revenues and expenses, and
financial risk assessments and plans for managing financial
risks, and
may specify such other information as the IFR considers necessary
for the purpose of exercising its functions under this Act.
A corporate governance statement condition is a condition requiring a club
to—
submit a corporate governance statement to the IFR before a
specified date, and
update the statement—
at specified intervals, and
as soon as reasonably practicable after there has been a
material change in the corporate governance arrangements
at the club, and
submit that updated statement to the IFR.
The condition must require—
the corporate governance statement to explain—
how the club is applying the code published under paragraph 7 , and
what action the club is taking to improve equality, diversity
and inclusion, and
the club to publish its latest corporate governance statement online
as soon as reasonably practicable after it has been submitted to the
IFR.
The IFR must publish the latest corporate governance statement of each
regulated club as soon as reasonably practicable after each statement is
submitted to the IFR.
The IFR must also publish a corporate governance report.
The report must—
summarise the extent to which regulated clubs are applying the
code published under
paragraph 7
,
set out the main issues that the IFR considers to arise from the
corporate governance statements submitted to the IFR, and
recommend ways in which regulated clubs may improve their
corporate governance arrangements.
The report must—
be made at such time and in such form as is specified by the IFR
in rules;
include such other matters as may be specified by the IFR in rules.
The IFR must prepare and publish a code of practice about the corporate
governance of regulated clubs.
“Corporate governance”, in relation to a club, includes—
the nature, constitution or functions of the organs of the club,
the manner in which the organs of the club conduct themselves,
the requirements imposed on organs of the club,
the approach of the club to equality, diversity and inclusion, and
the relationship between different organs of the club.
The IFR—
must keep the code of practice under review, and
may from time to time prepare and publish alterations to the code
or a replacement code.
Before publishing a code of practice or any alterations to the code, except
where the IFR considers that the alterations are minor, the IFR must
consult—
the Football Association, and
such other persons as appear to the IFR to be representative of
persons likely to be affected by the code.
A code of practice published under
this paragraph
comes into force on the
day specified in it.
Alterations to the code of practice come into force on the day specified in
the alterations for that purpose.
A fan consultation condition is a condition requiring a club to carry out
regular consultation on relevant matters with—
persons elected by the club’s fans to represent their views, or
persons otherwise appearing to the IFR to represent the views of
the club’s fans.
So far as the condition requires consultation with persons within
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
, the condition may require the club to constitute a
group of such persons for that purpose.
In considering whether the condition should require consultation with
persons within
sub-paragraph (1)
(a)
, the IFR must have regard to—
the club’s corporate governance arrangements,
the size and composition of the club’s fanbase, and
the club’s financial and non-financial resources.
In
sub-paragraph (1)
“relevant matters” has the meaning given by
paragraph
4
(2)
of
Schedule 4
.
In sub-paragraph (3) “corporate governance” has the meaning given by paragraph 7 (2) .
The condition may require the consultation to take place by specified means
or at specified intervals.
In considering what to specify for the purposes of
sub-paragraph (1)
, the
IFR must have regard to—
the size and composition of the club’s fanbase, and
the club’s financial and non-financial resources.
An annual declaration condition is a condition requiring a club to submit
an annual declaration to the IFR on a specified date or at specified intervals.
The condition must require the declaration to contain—
either—
a description of any matter notified, or that should have
been notified, to the IFR in accordance with
section 27
,
33
or
50
during the previous 12 months, or
a statement that there were no such matters to notify, and
such other specified information.
In
this Schedule
, “specified” (unless stated otherwise) means specified in
the condition concerned.
This Schedule
applies for the purposes of commitments mentioned in
section
23
(3)
(c)
(ii)
in relation to—
the IFR accepting a commitment from a specified competition
organiser,
the IFR accepting a variation of a commitment (a “requested
variation”), or
the IFR releasing a specified competition organiser from a
commitment.
Before accepting a commitment or a requested variation from a specified
competition organiser, the IFR must—
give a notice to the club concerned, and
have regard to any representations made in accordance with the
notice.
The notice must—
include the commitment or requested variation that the IFR proposes
to accept,
give the IFR’s reasons for proposing to accept the commitment or
variation, and
specify the period within which representations may be made in
relation to the proposed commitment or variation.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a
period of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice
is given.
The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after deciding whether to
accept a commitment or requested variation, give a notice of its decision
to the club and the specified competition organiser concerned.
Paragraph 2
does not apply in relation to a proposed variation which the
IFR does not consider material.
Before releasing a specified competition organiser from a commitment, the
IFR must—
give a notice to the club concerned and the specified competition
organiser, and
have regard to any representations made in accordance with the
notice.
The notice must—
include a statement that the IFR proposes to release the specified
competition organiser from the commitment,
give the reasons for the IFR’s proposal, and
specify the period within which representations may be made in
relation to the proposal.
The period specified in the notice for making representations must be a
period of not less than 14 days beginning with the day on which the notice
is given.
The IFR must, as soon as reasonably practicable after deciding whether to
release a specified competition organiser from a commitment, give a notice
of its decision to the club and the specified competition organiser concerned.
This Schedule sets out when a person commits a relevant infringement for
the purposes of this Act.
A club commits a relevant infringement if it—
operates a relevant team, and
does not hold an operating licence.
A club also commits a relevant infringement if the club fails to comply
with—
a condition attached to an operating licence held by it;
a direction given to it under section 40 , 41 or 42 ;
a requirement imposed on it by or under an order under
section
43
;
a commitment accepted under section 70 ;
an urgent direction under section 79 ;
any rule made by the IFR.
A club also commits a relevant infringement if the club fails to co-operate
with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order under section 42 ;
a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43 ;
an expert reporter appointed under section 66 ;
a skilled person appointed by virtue of paragraph 5 of Schedule 9 .
A club is deemed to have committed a relevant infringement if—
instead of granting the club a full operating licence in accordance
with
section 18
(6)
(a)
, the IFR—
specifies a further period for which the club’s provisional
operating licence is to have effect in accordance with
section
18
(6)
(b)
, or
revokes the club’s provisional operating licence in accordance
with
section 19
;
an owner of the club fails to comply with—
a direction given to the owner under section 39 or 41 , or
a requirement imposed on the owner by or under an order
under
section 43
;
an officer of the club fails to comply with a direction given to the
officer under
section 40
or
41
;
an owner or officer of the club fails to co-operate with or assist, or
otherwise obstructs—
an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order
under
section 42
;
a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43 .
An owner of a club commits a relevant infringement if the owner—
fails to comply with a requirement imposed on the owner by
section
27
or
33
;
fails to comply with—
a direction given to the owner under section 39 or 41 , or
a requirement imposed on the owner by or under an order
under
section 43
;
fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order
under
section 42
;
a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43 ;
fails to comply with a commitment accepted under section 70 ;
fails to comply with an urgent direction under section 79 ;
fails to comply with any rule made by the IFR.
An officer of a club commits a relevant infringement if the officer—
fails to comply with a requirement imposed on the officer by
section
27
or
33
;
fails to comply with a direction given to the officer under
section
40
or
41
;
fails to co-operate with or assist, or otherwise obstructs—
an individual appointed as an officer by virtue of an order
under
section 42
;
a trustee appointed by virtue of an order under section 43 ;
fails to comply with a commitment accepted under section 70 ;
fails to comply with an urgent direction under section 79 ;
fails to comply with any rule made by the IFR.
A senior manager of a club commits a relevant infringement if—
the club, without reasonable excuse, commits a relevant
infringement, and
the relevant infringement is connected to a senior management
function carried out by the senior manager.
A senior manager also commits a relevant infringement if the senior
manager fails to comply with a commitment accepted under
section 70
.
A specified competition organiser commits a relevant infringement if the
organiser fails to comply with—
a commitment accepted by the IFR under section 24 ;
a requirement imposed by
section 55
(duties to notify and consult
with the IFR);
a distribution order made under section 62 ;
a commitment accepted under section 70 ;
an urgent direction under section 79 ;
any rule made by the IFR.
A person who is not a club, an owner or officer of a club or a specified
competition organiser commits a relevant infringement if the person fails
to comply with a requirement imposed on the person by—
section 27
(duty to notify where prospect of becoming a new owner
or officer);
section 46
(duty not to dispose of etc home ground without
approval);
section 47 (duty not to appoint administrator without approval);
an urgent direction under section 79 ;
any rule made by the IFR.
This Schedule applies where the IFR decides to conduct an investigation
under
section 68
into whether a person has committed a relevant
infringement.
The IFR may give any person (whether or not the person mentioned in
paragraph 1
) a notice (“an interview notice”) requiring the person to answer
questions that relate to any matter relevant to the investigation.
An interview notice must—
include details of the investigation;
state the place at which, or the manner in which (which may be
remote), the person is to answer the questions;
state the time at which the person is to answer the questions;
include information about the possible consequences under Part 8 of not complying with the notice.
On an application made to it by the IFR, the court or Tribunal may issue
a warrant if it is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting
that there is on, or accessible from, any business premises information that
relates to any matter relevant to the investigation (“relevant information”).
A warrant under this paragraph authorises an officer of the IFR named in
the warrant (“the authorised officer”), and any other of the IFR’s officers
whom the IFR’s Board has authorised in writing to accompany the
authorised officer, to—
enter the premises specified in the warrant, using such force as is
reasonably necessary;
take onto the premises such equipment as appears to the authorised
officer to be necessary;
search the premises for information appearing to be relevant
information;
operate any equipment found on the premises for the purpose of
producing information;
require any person on the premises to provide such assistance as
the authorised officer may reasonably require (including providing
passwords or encryption keys and operating equipment on the
premises);
require any person on the premises to give information to the
authorised officer;
require any person on the premises to state, to the best of their
knowledge and belief, where relevant information may be found;
take copies of, or extracts from, any information appearing to be
relevant information;
take possession of any information appearing to be relevant
information that is produced under
paragraph (d)
or given to the
authorised officer under
paragraph (f)
;
take possession of any other information appearing to be relevant
information if—
such action appears to be necessary for preserving the
information or preventing interference with it, or
it is not reasonably practicable to take copies of the
information on the premises;
take any other steps which appear to be necessary for the purpose
of preserving any information appearing to be relevant information
or preventing interference with it.
Any information which is given to an officer under
sub-paragraph (2)
must
be in a form—
in which it can be taken away, and
which is visible and legible or from which it can be readily be
generated in a visible and legible form.
A warrant under this paragraph may authorise persons specified in the
warrant to accompany the authorised officer who is executing it.
A warrant under this paragraph continues in force until the end of the
period of one month beginning with the day on which it is issued.
Any information which the IFR obtains under
sub-paragraph (2)
may be
retained by the IFR for a period of three months.
An application for a warrant under this paragraph must—
in the case of an application to the court, be made in accordance
with rules of court;
in the case of an application to the Tribunal, be made in accordance
with Tribunal Procedure Rules.
The IFR may not make an application under this paragraph to the court
or the Tribunal unless the IFR’s Board has approved the making of the
application.
In this paragraph, “court” means the High Court.
A warrant under paragraph 3 must describe—
the subject-matter and purpose of the investigation;
the offence created by section 78 (5) .
The powers conferred by
paragraph 3
are exercisable only on production
of the warrant issued under that paragraph.
Before executing a warrant under paragraph 3 , the authorised officer must—
take reasonable steps to inform the occupier of the premises of the
intended entry, and
afford the occupier or their legal or other representative a reasonable
opportunity to be present when the warrant is executed.
But
sub-paragraph (3)
does not apply if the authorised officer considers
that so informing the occupier would prejudice the execution of the warrant.
If the authorised officer is unable to, or under
sub-paragraph (4)
does not,
inform the occupier of the intended entry they must, when executing the
warrant, leave a copy of it in a prominent place on the premises.
On leaving any premises which they have entered by virtue of a warrant
under
paragraph 3
, the authorised officer must, if the premises are
unoccupied or the occupier is temporarily absent, leave them as effectively
secured as they found them.
the IFR determines that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable
excuse, failed to comply with an information requirement (see
section
75
(2)
), or
the IFR is satisfied beyond reasonable doubt that P has committed
an offence under
section 78
.
The IFR may prepare and publish a censure statement.
A censure statement is a statement that—
states the identity of P,
states the information requirement that the IFR has determined that
P has failed to comply with or the offence that the IFR is satisfied
P has committed,
explains why the IFR determined that P failed to comply with that
requirement or is satisfied that P committed the offence (as the case
may be), and
explains why the IFR considers it appropriate to publish a statement
under this paragraph in respect of P.
The IFR may impose a financial penalty on P.
Where the IFR imposes a penalty under this paragraph it may provide that
the amount of the penalty is reduced to, or by, a specified amount if the
penalty is paid before a day specified in a decision notice under
section
77
.
The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph must be—
a fixed amount,
an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or
a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is a club or a competition organiser, the maximum amount of a
penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total
revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United
Kingdom);
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club
or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is a body that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated
club, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this
paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the body’s
(both within and outside the United Kingdom), and
£75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the body
(both inside and outside the United Kingdom), and
£25,000;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is an owner of a club (including where P is also a senior manager
or other officer of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may
be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total
revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club
(both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is an officer of a club (including where P is a senior manager of
the club, but not where P is also an owner of the club), the maximum
amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s remuneration, and
£75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s daily remuneration,
and
£25,000;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
In any other case, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed
under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, £75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate,
£25,000 per day;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
This paragraph applies where the IFR determines (whether as a result of
an investigation or otherwise) that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable
excuse, committed a relevant infringement.
The IFR may prepare and publish a censure statement.
A censure statement is a statement that—
states the identity of P,
states the relevant infringement that the IFR has determined that P
has committed,
explains why the IFR determined that P has committed the relevant
infringement, and
explains why the IFR considers it appropriate to publish a statement
under this paragraph in respect of P.
This paragraph applies where—
the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or
otherwise) that a club has, without reasonable excuse, committed a
relevant infringement, and
the infringement is continuing.
The IFR may require the club to appoint a person nominated by the IFR
(“a skilled person”) to assist the club in bringing the relevant infringement
to an end.
The IFR may only nominate a person if the IFR is satisfied that the person—
has the skills necessary to assist the club in bringing the relevant
infringement to an end, and
does not have a conflict of interest.
Where a skilled person is appointed by virtue of this paragraph, the club
must—
co-operate with the skilled person, and
give the skilled person such reasonable assistance as the skilled
person requests (including access to business premises, equipment,
services, information and individuals),
in connection with bringing the relevant infringement to an end.
This paragraph applies where the IFR determines (whether as a result of
an investigation or otherwise) that a person (“P”) has, without reasonable
excuse, committed a relevant infringement.
The IFR may impose a financial penalty on P.
Where the IFR imposes a penalty under this paragraph it may provide that
the amount of the penalty is reduced to, or by, a specified amount if the
penalty is paid before a day specified in a decision notice under
section
77
.
The amount of a penalty imposed under this paragraph must be—
a fixed amount,
an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, or
a combination of a fixed amount and an amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is a club or a competition organiser, the maximum amount of a
penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total
revenue of the club or organiser (both inside and outside the United
Kingdom);
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club
or organiser (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is a body that is not a regulated club but has been a regulated
club, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this
paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the total revenue of the body’s
(both within and outside the United Kingdom), and
£75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the body
(both inside and outside the United Kingdom), and
£25,000;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is an owner of a club (including where P is also a senior manager
or other officer of the club), the maximum amount of a penalty that may
be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, an amount equal to 10% of the total
revenue of the club (both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day an amount equal to 10% of the daily revenue of the club
(both inside and outside the United Kingdom);
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
Where P is an officer of a club (including where P is a senior manager of
the club but not where P is also an owner of the club), the maximum
amount of a penalty that may be imposed under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s remuneration, and
£75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate, for
each day the higher of—
an amount equal to 10% of the officer’s daily remuneration,
and
£25,000;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
In any other case, the maximum amount of a penalty that may be imposed
under this paragraph is—
in the case of a fixed amount, £75,000;
in the case of an amount calculated by reference to a daily rate,
£25,000 per day;
in the case of a combination of a fixed amount and an amount
calculated by reference to a daily rate, the amount specified in—
paragraph (a) , in relation to the fixed amount, and
paragraph (b)
, in relation to the amount calculated by
reference to a daily rate.
This paragraph applies where—
the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or
otherwise) that a person has, without reasonable excuse, committed
a relevant infringement to which
sub-paragraph (2)
applies, and
the relevant infringement is continuing.
This sub-paragraph applies to relevant infringements that are relevant
infringements by virtue of any of the following provisions of
Schedule 7
—
paragraph 2 (2) (c) , (d) or (g) ;
paragraph 2 (3) (a) or (b) ;
paragraph 3 (b) , (c) or (e) ;
paragraph 4 (b) , (c) or (e) ;
paragraph 6 (c) or (e) ;
The IFR may apply to the Tribunal for an injunction to bring the relevant
infringement to an end.
Tribunal Procedure Rules may make provision about the transfer from the
Tribunal to the High Court of all or any part of an application under
sub-paragraph (3)
.
Paragraph 9 applies where—
the IFR determines (whether as a result of an investigation or
otherwise) that a club has, without reasonable excuse, committed a
relevant infringement, and
one or more of the aggravating conditions are met in relation to the
relevant infringement.
The first aggravating condition is that—
the relevant infringement is intentional and persistent, and
the IFR has already taken action in accordance with this Part of this
Schedule and considers that there is no further action it could take
under this Part of this Schedule (other than action under
paragraph
9
) that would bring the relevant infringement to an end.
The second aggravating condition is that—
the club has intentionally and persistently failed to co-operate with
the IFR in relation to any investigation into the relevant
infringement, and
the IFR has already taken action in accordance with this Part of this
Schedule and considers that there is no further action it could take
under this Part of this Schedule (other than action under
paragraph
9
) that would bring the relevant infringement to an end.
The third aggravating condition is that the relevant infringement jeopardises
the IFR’s ability to advance one or more of its objectives.
For the purposes of this paragraph, behaviour is persistent if the behaviour
has occurred on a sufficient number of occasions for it to be clear that it
represents a pattern of behaviour or practice.
The IFR may—
suspend the club’s operating licence, or
revoke the club’s operating licence from a day specified by the IFR.
Where the IFR suspends an operating licence—
it must specify in a decision notice under
section 77
the day on
which the suspension takes effect, and
it must specify in that notice either—
the period for which the operating licence will be suspended,
or
that the operating licence is to be suspended until some
event specified in the notice occurs (which may be the giving
of a further notice by the IFR).
Where a decision notice under
section 77
is given during a football season,
the date specified in that notice for the purposes of
sub-paragraph (2)
(a)
may not be a date before the end of that season.
Nothing in this paragraph prevents the IFR from—
re-exercising the power in this paragraph to suspend an operating
licence after a previous suspension of the licence has come to an
end, or
revoking an operating licence after a suspension of the licence has
come to an end.
an undertaking (with the meaning of Part 1 of the Competition Act
1998) is part of a group if one or more bodies corporate which are
comprised in the undertaking are members of the same group as
one or more other bodies corporate;
two or more bodies corporate are members of the same group if—
one is the subsidiary of another, or
both are subsidiaries of the same body corporate;
“subsidiary” has the meaning given by section 1159 of the
Companies Act 2006.
no account is to be taken of any days before the IFR gives the person
concerned a warning notice under
section 76
, and
unless (whether before or after the penalty is imposed) the IFR
determines an earlier day, the amount payable ceases to accumulate
at the beginning of the day on which the conduct giving rise to the
penalty ceases.
Where the IFR imposes a penalty under paragraph
3
or
6
by reference to
a daily rate, the decision notice under
section 77
must state the day on
which the amount first starts to accumulate and the day or days on which
it might cease to accumulate.
For the purposes of paragraphs
3
and
6
, the IFR may by rules (“revenue
rules”) make provision for determining—
a person’s total and daily revenue;
an officer’s remuneration and daily remuneration.
Revenue rules may, among other things, make provision about—
amounts which are, or are not, to be included in a person’s revenue;
amounts which are, or are not, to be included in an officer’s
remuneration;
the period or periods by reference to which a person’s revenue is
to be determined;
the period or periods by reference to which an officer’s remuneration
is to be determined.
Before making, amending or replacing revenue rules the IFR must consult
the Secretary of State.
Sub-paragraph (3)
does not apply in relation to amendments to or
replacements of revenue rules if the IFR considers the changes to be minor.
The consultation must include a draft of the proposed revenue rules.
But the IFR may, by notice to the person on whom the penalty is imposed,
provide that this paragraph does not apply in relation to the penalty.
In sub-paragraph (1) , “Bank of England base rate” means—
the percentage rate announced from time to time by the Monetary
Policy Committee of the Bank of England as the official dealing
rate, being the rate at which the Bank is willing to enter into
transactions for providing short term liquidity in the money markets,
or
where an order under section 19 of the Bank of England Act 1998
is in force, any equivalent percentage rate determined by the
Treasury under that section.
Such an amount may be recovered as a civil debt due to the IFR.
The Secretary of State may by regulations amend the amounts for the time
being specified in—
paragraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph 3 (9) ;
paragraphs (a) and (b) of paragraph 6 (10) .
Decision of the IFR (“the reviewable decision”) |
Who carries out the review (the “applicable reviewer”) |
to refuse to grant a provisional operating licence under section 17 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to specify a further period for which a provisional
operating licence is to have effect under
section |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to revoke a provisional operating licence under section 19 |
the Board |
to attach a discretionary licence condition, to vary or remove, or to not vary or remove, a discretionary licence condition attached, to an operating licence under section 21 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to accept, or not to accept, a commitment mentioned in section 23 (3) (c) (ii) |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to release, or not release, a specified competition
organiser from a commitment mentioned in
section |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to make a determination in relation to a person under Part 4 |
the Board |
to make an order under section 38 (disqualification orders) |
the Board |
to give a direction under section 39 or 40 (removal directions) |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to give a direction under section 41 (directions relating to unsuitable owners and officers) |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to give a direction, or make an order, under
section |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to make an order under section 43 (ownership removal orders) |
the Board |
to specify, or not specify, a competition as a prohibited competition under section 45 |
the Board |
to approve, or not to approve, the carrying out of
one or more of the activities mentioned in
section |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to approve, or not to approve, the appointment of an administrator under section 47 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to approve, or not to approve, the entering into of arrangements mentioned in section 48 (1) (duty not to relocate without approval) |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
not to approve, or to approve with modifications, a personnel statement under section 52 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
not to trigger a resolution process under section 59 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to make a distribution order under section 62 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to terminate the resolution process under
section |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to revoke a distribution order under section 63 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to appoint an expert reporter under section 66 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to conduct an investigation under section 68 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
not to accept a commitment under section 70 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
not to release a person from a commitment accepted under section 70 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to give an urgent direction for breaches of licence conditions under section 79 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to exercise its power to ask questions under paragraph 2 of Schedule 8 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to prepare and publish a censure statement under paragraph 2 or 4 of Schedule 9 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to require the appointment of a skilled person under paragraph 5 of Schedule 9 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to impose a financial penalty under paragraph 3 or 6 of Schedule 9 |
a committee of the Expert Panel |
to suspend or revoke an operating licence under paragraph 9 of Schedule 9 |
the Board |
affirmative determination |
|
applicable reviewer |
section 81 (2) and Schedule 10 |
the Board |
paragraphs 1 and 2 of Schedule 2 |
business premises |
|
chargeable period |
|
closure notice |
|
club |
|
the club financial soundness objective |
|
commitment |
section 24 (in Part 3 ) and section 70 (in Part 7 ) |
competition |
|
competition organiser |
|
concerned person |
|
conflict of interest |
|
decision notice |
|
discretionary licence condition |
|
distribution agreement |
|
distribution order |
|
English football |
|
English team |
|
Expert Panel |
paragraphs 1 and 22 of Schedule 2 |
expert reporter |
|
the fan engagement threshold requirement |
|
the financial resources threshold requirement |
|
the Football Association |
|
football |
|
football club |
|
football governance statement |
|
football season |
|
full operating licence |
|
HMRC |
|
the IFR |
|
the IFR’s objectives |
|
the IFR’s regulatory principles |
|
individual ownership fitness criteria |
|
information |
|
information requirement |
|
levy rules |
|
licensed club |
|
mandatory licence condition |
section 20 and Schedule 5 |
the non-financial resources threshold requirement |
|
officer |
|
officer fitness criteria |
|
operates |
|
operating licence |
|
owner |
section 3 (1) and Schedule 1 |
personnel statement |
|
provisional operating licence |
|
qualifying football season |
|
regulated club |
|
registered society |
|
relevant infringement |
section 67 and Schedule 7 |
relevant revenue |
|
relevant team |
|
resolution process |
|
revenue rules |
|
reviewable decision |
section 81 (2) and Schedule 10 |
senior manager |
|
senior management function |
|
serious criminal conduct |
|
skilled person |
|
specified competition |
|
specified competition organiser |
|
state of the game report |
|
the systemic financial resilience objective |
|
team |
|
threshold requirements |
|
the Tribunal |
|
Tribunal Procedure Rules |
|
ultimate owner |
|
urgent direction |
|
warning notice |
In Schedule 1 to the Public Records Act 1958 (definition of public records),
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
in paragraph 3, in Part 2 of the Table, at the appropriate place insert—
In Schedule 2 to the Parliamentary Commissioner Act 1967 (departments
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
etc subject to investigation), at the appropriate place insert—
In Part 2 of Schedule 1 to the House of Commons Disqualification Act 1975
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
(bodies of which all members are disqualified), at the appropriate place
insert—
In Part 6 of Schedule 1 to the Freedom of Information Act 2000 (other
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
public bodies and offices: general), at the appropriate place insert—
The Criminal Justice and Police Act 2001 is amended as follows.
In section 50 (additional powers of seizure from premises), in subsection
(7), after “section 74(2)(h) of the Digital Markets, Competition and
Consumers Act 2024” insert “or
paragraph 3
(2)
(h)
of
Schedule 8
to the
Football Governance Act 2024”.
“(w)
paragraph 3 (6) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act
2024.”
In section 63(1) (powers of seizure: copies), in paragraph (d), after “section
74(2)(d) and (f) of the Digital Markets, Competition and Consumers Act
2024” insert “, and in
paragraph 3
(2)
(d)
and
(f)
of
Schedule 8
to the Football
Governance Act 2024”.
In section 64 (meaning of “appropriate judicial authority”)—
in subsection (1), in the words before paragraph (a), for “subsection
(2)” substitute “subsections (2) and
(4)
”;
“(4)
In this Part “appropriate judicial authority”, in relation to
the seizure of documents under paragraph 3 (2) of Schedule
8 to the Football Governance Act 2024 and in relation to documents seized under that power, means the High Court.”
“(3C)
In relation to property which has been seized in exercise, or
purported exercise, of—(a)
the power of seizure conferred by paragraph 3 (2) of Schedule
8 to the Football Governance Act 2024, or(b)
so much of any power of seizure conferred by section 50 as
is exercisable by reference to that power,references in this Part to an item subject to legal privilege are to be read as references to a privileged communication within the meaning of section 73 (3) of that Act.”
“(k)
paragraph 3 (2) (j) of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance
Act 2024.”
In Part 1 of Schedule 1 (powers of seizure to which section 50 applies), at Each of the powers of seizure conferred by
paragraph 3
(2)
(i)
and
(j)
of
Schedule 8
to the Football Governance Act 2024 (seizure of
the end insert—
“Football Governance Act 2024
73X
information for the purposes of an investigation).”
Schedule 4 to the Enterprise Act 2002 (the Competition Appeal Tribunal:
procedure) is amended as follows.
Paragraph 1A (enforcement of injunctions in England and Wales and
Northern Ireland) is amended as follows.
In sub-paragraph (1), for “proceedings under” to “the Digital Markets,
Competition and Consumers Act 2024” substitute “relevant proceedings”.
“(4)
For the purposes of this paragraph, “relevant proceedings” means
proceedings under—(a)
section 47A or 47B of the 1998 Act;
(b)
section 101 of the Digital Markets, Competition and
Consumers Act 2024;(c)
paragraph 7 of Schedule 9 to the Football Governance Act
2024.”
Paragraph 10A (Tribunal rules: institution of proceedings) is amended as
follows.
In sub-paragraph (1), in the words before paragraph (a), for “warrant” to
“the 1998 Act” substitute “relevant warrant”.
In sub-paragraph (2), for “warrant mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)”
substitute “relevant warrant”.
“(3)
For the purposes of this paragraph, “relevant warrant” means a
warrant under—(a)
section 194 of this Act;
(b)
section 28, 28A, 62, 62A, 63, 65G or 65H of the 1998 Act;
(c)
section 74 of the Digital Markets, Competition and
Consumers Act 2024;(d)
paragraph 3 of Schedule 8 to the Football Governance Act
2024.”
In Part 1 of Schedule 19 to the Equality Act 2010 (authorities subject to the
“The Independent Football Regulator.”
public sector equality duty), in the group of entries under the heading
“Regulators”, at the appropriate place insert—
The Competition Appeal Tribunal Rules 2015 (S.I. 2015/1648) are amended
as follows.
In rules 3 (application of Rules)—
in paragraph (b) after “5A” insert “, 5B”;
“(ba)
rules 67 to 70 of Part 2 also apply to appeals under section 84 of the Football Governance Act 2024;”;
“(eb)
Part 5B applies to appeals under section 84 of the
Football Governance Act 2024 ;”.
“Part 5B Appeals under section 84 of the Football Governance Act 2024
98B Time limits for appeals
(1)
An appeal to the Tribunal under section 84 of the Football
Governance Act 2024 (“the 2024 Act”) in respect of an appealable
decision must be made by sending a notice of appeal within the period of 21 days beginning with the relevant day in relation to that decision.(2)
For the purposes of paragraph (1) , “appealable decision” means—
(a)
a reviewable decision specified in subsection (3) of section
84 of the 2024 Act , or(b)
a decision or deemed decision made by an applicable
reviewer in respect of such a reviewable decision under section 83 of that Act .(3)
For the purposes of paragraph (1) , the relevant day is—
(a)
in relation to a decision that is an appealable decision by
virtue of paragraph (2) (a) , the day on which notice is given of the decision under the provision of the 2024 Act concerned;(b)
in relation to a decision that is an appealable decision by
virtue of paragraph (2) (b) , the day on which notice of the decision or deemed decision is given under section 82 or 83 (as the case may be) of the 2024 Act .(4)
(5)
The Tribunal may not extend the time limits provided for in this
rule unless it is satisfied that the circumstances are exceptional.”
Nothing in this paragraph affects the power in section 15 of the Enterprise
Act 2002 to revoke or amend the Competition Appeal Tribunal Rules 2015,
as those Rules are amended by this paragraph.
A
bill
to
Establish the Independent Football Regulator; to make provision for the licensing of football clubs; to make provision about the distribution of revenue received by organisers of football competitions; and for connected purposes.
Ordered to be Printed, .
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